Hanoi5 Posted June 21, 2011 Report Share Posted June 21, 2011 [hv=pc=n&w=sq87hkq2dak8754ca&e=sj3haj85dj9ckqjt4&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=p]266|200[/hv] Teams, no opposing bidding. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lowerline Posted June 21, 2011 Report Share Posted June 21, 2011 [hv=d=n&v=n&b=5&a=p1cp1dp1hp1sp2cp3dp3sp4hppp]133|100[/hv] 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted June 21, 2011 Report Share Posted June 21, 2011 [hv=d=n&v=n&b=5&a=p1cp1dp1hp1sp2cp3dp3sp4hppp]133|100[/hv]I'd start out the same as lowerline where 1S! = 4th suit GF and may NOT have 4 cards ♠ . That's where we part company.West won't have to "jump" to 3D on his next turn; 2D will suffice in a GF atmosphere. Now, West -- with slam intentions -- will get excited if East raises to 3D. Hopefully, the pair can finds out about the lack of a Sp-Ctrl during cuebidding and settles in 5D. 3NT -- although makeable here -- may be hard to reach.... even with the greater bidding space . 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 21, 2011 Report Share Posted June 21, 2011 using xyz and walsh 1c=1d1h(unbal)=3d(nat, gf, long d)3s?=3ntp 1s for me would be nat, 4s, 5+d and gf 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jcrosa Posted June 22, 2011 Report Share Posted June 22, 2011 After 1♣- 1♦ - 1♥, in standard 2/1 (let's leave the Walsh issue aside), responder has no direct way to show a slammish hand with long ♦. So, a FSF bid will have to be used. Scenario A:1♠ is natural (and forcing 1 round, at least) and 2♠ is FSF (and GF). The next 3 bids would surely be 2♠ - 3♣ - 3♦. Next bid by opener should probably be 3♠, showing some doubt about 3NT. (Some might argue that, having avoided a NT rebid after 2♠, jack doubleton is now enough to bid 3NT; I disagree, but with queen doubleton it would be sensible). After 3♠, responder might place the final contract in 3NT. Has he done full justice to his hand? Wouldn't he bid the same way with a king less, say? Well, the fact is that his partner's bidding so far is not slam-positive (no ♦ belated support, likely no ♠ high honor). Giving up on slam is not absurd. Scenario B:1♠ is FSF (and GF, to simplify the analysis) and 2♠ is natural and GF. Bidding might proceed: 1♠ - 2♣ - 2♦ (no need to jump if GF; the jump in this case should be reserved for a self-sufficient suit) - 3♦ (2 card support is adequate at this point, and more so being J9; the 2♣ rebid tends to deny 3 card support) - and now what? One thing is certain, responder will not bid 3NT right away. He might do it after 3♥ (1st or 2nd roud control) - 3♠ (ambiguous, "last-train to 3NT"). Over 3♥, opener might also bid 4♥ as a suggestion to play there in the (expected) Moysian fit - partner will correct to diamonds if lacking 3 (good) hearts. If instead opener choses to bid 4♣, denying a ♠ control, responder knows there is no slam, and let's hope he has the means to stop in a makable game (4NT or 4♥). 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted June 22, 2011 Report Share Posted June 22, 2011 Lowerline's auction seems quite ok to me. Maybe opener can pull to 5♦ if he doesn't fancy the moysian. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tolvyrj Posted June 22, 2011 Report Share Posted June 22, 2011 Old school way; 1♣- 1♦- 1♥- 1♠ FSF- 2♣ four + clubs, no stopper in ♠- 2 ♠ nacking- 3 Nt ive got a jack of ♠ and no 3 card ♦. 3 ♠ instead of 3 Nt would have denied J of ♠ or anything like that. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted June 23, 2011 Report Share Posted June 23, 2011 Old school way; 1♣- 1♦- 1♥- 1♠ FSF- 2♣ four + clubs, no stopper in ♠- 2 ♠ nacking- 3 Nt ive got a jack of ♠ and no 3 card ♦. 3 ♠ instead of 3 Nt would have denied J of ♠ or anything like that. 2♣ over 4th sf does not deny ♠ stopper yet. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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