jillybean Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 So we won our first game tonight, back at 8:45am tomorrow for round#2. Here is a hand I found difficult. NV 1st seat partner opens 1D holding KQ95, KQ65, KJT74, V opposite JT6, AJx, AQx, T863 How should the bidding go? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BunnyGo Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 Congratulations on winning. Here are my 3AM thoughts on the auction: 1D-3N Then either pass out or 4 or 5 diamonds by opener. I dunno. I think passing is reasonable. You lost 5 clubs off the top? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 1d=2nt(12-13)3h?=4d?5d=p Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mbodell Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 So we won our first game tonight, back at 8:45am tomorrow for round#2. Here is a hand I found difficult. NV 1st seat partner opens 1D holding KQ95, KQ65, KJT74, V opposite JT6, AJx, AQx, T863 How should the bidding go? I'm not proud of it, but I think most of the time I'd bid this as 1♦-3nt-all pass. At IMPs it feels a little easier to bid 4♦ over 3nt since 5♦= compared to 3nt+1 isn't a disaster, and we might even have 6♦. At MP it feels riskier (which is probably why I tend to play 3nt-1 when 5m makes on hands like this - bridge is hard). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Mbodell Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 So we won our first game tonight, back at 8:45am tomorrow for round#2. Here is a hand I found difficult. NV 1st seat partner opens 1D holding KQ95, KQ65, KJT74, V opposite JT6, AJx, AQx, T863 How should the bidding go? I'm not proud of it, but I think most of the time I'd bid this as 1♦-3nt-all pass. At IMPs it feels a little easier to bid 4♦ over 3nt since 5♦= compared to 3nt+1 isn't a disaster, and we might even have 6♦. At MP it feels riskier (which is probably why I tend to play 3nt-1 when 5m makes on hands like this - bridge is hard). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 Hi, most likely we would bid 1D - 2NT (11-12)3H - 3NT all pass I am not sure responders hand is worth a GF, but you will end up in game anyway, and the most likely endcontract is 3NT. If responder is limited, there is also no need for opener to remove 3NT, in search of a slam. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 This is a really awkward hand because of the combination of the suit you have the fit in and the suit with the void. I'd really like to bid 1♦-3N-5♣ exclusion, but can't as I can go past 5♦ with no safety net. We play 1♦-3N as precisely 3334, I don't know what it is in your system. I can see no way of bidding this scientifically to 6♦, the only way to get there would be some sort of cue bidding auction after 1♦-3N-4♦ where the 3N bidder bypasses the club cue and the other hand decides that the knowledge partner doesn't have the ♣AK is enough to sway the odds in favour of punting 6♦. I suspect we'd play 5♦. 1♦-3N-4♠(cue, not denying a heart control, 4♥ would be asking aces)-4N(heart control)-5♣(cue, 4♣ over 3N would have been natural)-5♦ and now it would be a pure punt to bid any more. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted June 14, 2011 Report Share Posted June 14, 2011 1♦-2NT3NT Ugly but I can't think of other. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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