Crunch3nt Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sk742hkdaqj43cqt5&n=sa8ha984dkt2caj96&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1d1sdp1np3nppp]266|200[/hv] System is 15-17 1NT with 5 card majors, 4 card Diamond, Short Club South downgraded slightly rebidding 1NT with poor spade cards, soft values, and no clear alternative North couldn't see a good slam opposite a weak 1NT rebid. Who should have done what? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 This seems normal, unfortunately. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 Obviously 1N was the only questionable call, I think it's alright though. Had south rebid 2C it could go- 2S 2N3C 3D etc and slam should be pretty easy to find, but oh well. Obviously when you bid 1N you know there is a risk because you are overstrength, but there are also risks bidding 2C on a 3 card suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 Happens. Next Bord. I am not sure, I like the 1NT response, but I understand why it was made. In the end you have no wastage, everything fits very well. With kind regardsMarlowe PS: My alternative to 1NT would have been 2D, most likely the bid I would have choosen, but 1NT is ok, and if it would occur to me on thetable, I may make it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
menggq Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 Why not cue bid 2♠ instead of 3N by North? North has extra values obviously. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sk742hkdaqj43cqt5&n=sa8ha984dkt2caj96&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1d1sdp1np3nppp]266|200[/hv] System is 15-17 1NT with 5 card majors, 4 card Diamond, Short Club South downgraded slightly rebidding 1NT with poor spade cards, soft values, and no clear alternative North couldn't see a good slam opposite a weak 1NT rebid. Who should have done what? Yes, agree with your analysis. Indeed slam seems far away. As already stated.... next hand please. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 (edited) 1Nt is perfect the hand is not strong enough for 2C. I think 3Nt is slightly lazy, Most of the time south is going to have a plain bal 12-14, but he can easily have 4351,4153 up to 15 and possible even a 4252 up to 16 (downgrade the S honnors) , and I also allow some 4162 (im in the minority here but i know im not alone). 2S is a freeroll bid (cost nothing may gain) Wouldnt sleep missing slam on this one. Meant wouldnt lose sleep missing this slam Edited June 8, 2011 by benlessard Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 I have never thought about this before, but there seems to be a sequence that fits this auction very well. Opener starts with 1♦, overcall of 1♠, and a negative double. So, Responder has at most four hearts if he has GF values. Opener returns to 1NT, which usually announces a minimum balanced hand. However, he could have greater strength if he has shortness in hearts. What, then, would Responder's jump to 3♥ show? This seems like a "Bluhmer," or an "empathetic splinter" if you like my terminology. He cannot have extra heart length, and he certainly cannot have shortness, so the remainiong logical option would be "diamond fit with slam interest if you have that extra's hand with shortness in hearts." The hand fits perfectly for that call, if that is the meaning. So, since this is A/E, I'll go with North for not trotting out the B/ES, or partnership for not discussing this sequence as a B/ES candidate. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 I have never thought about this before, but there seems to be a sequence that fits this auction very well. Opener starts with 1♦, overcall of 1♠, and a negative double. So, Responder has at most four hearts if he has GF values. Opener returns to 1NT, which usually announces a minimum balanced hand. However, he could have greater strength if he has shortness in hearts. What, then, would Responder's jump to 3♥ show? This seems like a "Bluhmer," or an "empathetic splinter" if you like my terminology. I think the 2♠! call ( as suggested by others ) by North would cover this option .... if indeed South has a 5 card ♦ suit. But what if South is 4-4 in the minors ? K x x xxA Q J xQ 10 x x Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jmcw Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 1Nt is perfect the hand is not strong enough for 2C. I think 3Nt is slightly lazy, Most of the time south is going to have a plain bal 12-14. What has strength got to do with a 2♣ rebid?. I think 2♣ a reasonable choice but admittedly I would rebid the flawed but seeming popular 1NT. 1 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszes Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 if this was MP (where we straaaaain to avoid minors) I can see 1n and auctionending in 3n. At IMPS 1n is too limiting a 2d rebid has a much higher upper rangeand promises some dia length (a decent 5 is surely good enough) after 2d 2s 3nshowing near the top it seems quite an easy matter for N to consider slam (p with dia length and probably around 15-16 and some distributional feature thatkept them from opening 1n) admittedly I would probably end up in 6d vs the vastly superior 6n. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 Why is 6NT "vastly superior"? I can see that the chance of making is a tiny bit better, in that it makes when spades are 7-0, but otherwise the only difference seems to be the that 6NT scores slightly more and is more likely to make an overtrick. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenrexford Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 I think the 2♠! call ( as suggested by others ) by North would cover this option .... if indeed South has a 5 card ♦ suit. But what if South is 4-4 in the minors ? K x x xxA Q J xQ 10 x x The 2♠ option does not cover the situation as well, because it muddies the waters. One call that says all is always better than a call that leaves ambiguity. The sequence is easy with an unbalanced diamond, where the 1NT rebid promises a stiff heart, making it a true and obvious Bluhmer. The empathetic splinter concept is different from a Bluhmer in that the stiff is possible but unknown. The question of 4-4 minors is a legitimate one. However, thinking this through solves the problem. Responder should not make the empathetic splinter (IMO) without 3♦/4+♣ or 4+♦. Translated, Responder either has a sure diamond fit (4+) or a probably diamond fit (3) with a club backup (4+). Thus, if Opener has the 4144 hand, we have a fit in one of the minors. The problem hand for Responder would be only three diamonds and only three clubs. Maybe 3433. With that hand, 2♠ allows Opener to complete his pattern. Arguably, the Bluhmer should perhaps just promise 4+ diamonds, such that the Bluhmer is not right on this hand. But, I think that is too limiting, myself. With 4+ diamonds, or the 3♦/4+♣ holding, Responder knows some minor fit exists when Opener will accept the Bluhmer, such that demanding that a specific minor fit exists seems unnecessary, so long as Opener caters to this either-or. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted June 8, 2011 Report Share Posted June 8, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sk742hkdaqj43cqt5&n=sa8ha984dkt2caj96&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1d1sdp1np3nppp]266|200[/hv] System is 15-17 1NT with 5 card majors, 4 card Diamond, Short Club South downgraded slightly rebidding 1NT with poor spade cards, soft values, and no clear alternative North couldn't see a good slam opposite a weak 1NT rebid. Who should have done what?We play system on more or less as if the auction has gone unopposed 1♦-1♥-1N so 2♣ would be artificial here and 3♦ showing 5 and a maximum would be bid over it (Crowhurst style), now the slam is not far fetched at all (It's excellent with ♣108x, doesn't need Q10x). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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