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ATB / How to bid?


Crunch3nt

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[hv=pc=n&s=sk742hkdaqj43cqt5&n=sa8ha984dkt2caj96&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1d1sdp1np3nppp]266|200[/hv]

 

System is 15-17 1NT with 5 card majors, 4 card Diamond, Short Club

 

South downgraded slightly rebidding 1NT with poor spade cards, soft values, and no clear alternative

 

North couldn't see a good slam opposite a weak 1NT rebid.

 

Who should have done what?

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Obviously 1N was the only questionable call, I think it's alright though. Had south rebid 2C it could go-

 

2S 2N

3C 3D

 

etc and slam should be pretty easy to find, but oh well. Obviously when you bid 1N you know there is a risk because you are overstrength, but there are also risks bidding 2C on a 3 card suit.

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Happens. Next Bord.

 

I am not sure, I like the 1NT response, but I understand why it was made.

 

In the end you have no wastage, everything fits very well.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: My alternative to 1NT would have been 2D, most likely the bid I

would have choosen, but 1NT is ok, and if it would occur to me on the

table, I may make it.

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[hv=pc=n&s=sk742hkdaqj43cqt5&n=sa8ha984dkt2caj96&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1d1sdp1np3nppp]266|200[/hv]

 

System is 15-17 1NT with 5 card majors, 4 card Diamond, Short Club

 

South downgraded slightly rebidding 1NT with poor spade cards, soft values, and no clear alternative

 

North couldn't see a good slam opposite a weak 1NT rebid.

 

Who should have done what?

 

 

 

 

Yes, agree with your analysis. Indeed slam seems far away.

 

As already stated.... next hand please.

 

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1Nt is perfect the hand is not strong enough for 2C. I think 3Nt is slightly lazy, Most of the time south is going to have a plain bal 12-14, but he can easily have 4351,4153 up to 15 and possible even a 4252 up to 16 (downgrade the S honnors) , and I also allow some 4162 (im in the minority here but i know im not alone). 2S is a freeroll bid (cost nothing may gain)

 

Wouldnt sleep missing slam on this one.

 

Meant wouldnt lose sleep missing this slam

Edited by benlessard
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I have never thought about this before, but there seems to be a sequence that fits this auction very well.

 

Opener starts with 1, overcall of 1, and a negative double. So, Responder has at most four hearts if he has GF values.

 

Opener returns to 1NT, which usually announces a minimum balanced hand. However, he could have greater strength if he has shortness in hearts.

 

What, then, would Responder's jump to 3 show? This seems like a "Bluhmer," or an "empathetic splinter" if you like my terminology. He cannot have extra heart length, and he certainly cannot have shortness, so the remainiong logical option would be "diamond fit with slam interest if you have that extra's hand with shortness in hearts."

 

The hand fits perfectly for that call, if that is the meaning.

 

So, since this is A/E, I'll go with North for not trotting out the B/ES, or partnership for not discussing this sequence as a B/ES candidate.

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I have never thought about this before, but there seems to be a sequence that fits this auction very well.

 

Opener starts with 1, overcall of 1, and a negative double. So, Responder has at most four hearts if he has GF values.

 

Opener returns to 1NT, which usually announces a minimum balanced hand. However, he could have greater strength if he has shortness in hearts.

 

What, then, would Responder's jump to 3 show? This seems like a "Bluhmer," or an "empathetic splinter" if you like my terminology.

 

I think the 2! call ( as suggested by others ) by North would cover this option .... if indeed South has a 5 card suit.

 

But what if South is 4-4 in the minors ?

 

K x x x

x

A Q J x

Q 10 x x

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1Nt is perfect the hand is not strong enough for 2C. I think 3Nt is slightly lazy, Most of the time south is going to have a plain bal 12-14.

 

What has strength got to do with a 2 rebid?.

 

I think 2 a reasonable choice but admittedly I would rebid the flawed but seeming popular 1NT.

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if this was MP (where we straaaaain to avoid minors) I can see 1n and auction

ending in 3n. At IMPS 1n is too limiting a 2d rebid has a much higher upper range

and promises some dia length (a decent 5 is surely good enough) after 2d 2s 3n

showing near the top it seems quite an easy matter for N to consider slam

(p with dia length and probably around 15-16 and some distributional feature that

kept them from opening 1n) admittedly I would probably end up in 6d vs the vastly

superior 6n.

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Why is 6NT "vastly superior"? I can see that the chance of making is a tiny bit better, in that it makes when spades are 7-0, but otherwise the only difference seems to be the that 6NT scores slightly more and is more likely to make an overtrick.
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I think the 2! call ( as suggested by others ) by North would cover this option .... if indeed South has a 5 card suit.

 

But what if South is 4-4 in the minors ?

 

K x x x

x

A Q J x

Q 10 x x

 

The 2 option does not cover the situation as well, because it muddies the waters. One call that says all is always better than a call that leaves ambiguity.

 

The sequence is easy with an unbalanced diamond, where the 1NT rebid promises a stiff heart, making it a true and obvious Bluhmer. The empathetic splinter concept is different from a Bluhmer in that the stiff is possible but unknown.

 

The question of 4-4 minors is a legitimate one. However, thinking this through solves the problem. Responder should not make the empathetic splinter (IMO) without 3/4+ or 4+. Translated, Responder either has a sure diamond fit (4+) or a probably diamond fit (3) with a club backup (4+). Thus, if Opener has the 4144 hand, we have a fit in one of the minors. The problem hand for Responder would be only three diamonds and only three clubs. Maybe 3433. With that hand, 2 allows Opener to complete his pattern.

 

Arguably, the Bluhmer should perhaps just promise 4+ diamonds, such that the Bluhmer is not right on this hand. But, I think that is too limiting, myself. With 4+ diamonds, or the 3/4+ holding, Responder knows some minor fit exists when Opener will accept the Bluhmer, such that demanding that a specific minor fit exists seems unnecessary, so long as Opener caters to this either-or.

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[hv=pc=n&s=sk742hkdaqj43cqt5&n=sa8ha984dkt2caj96&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1d1sdp1np3nppp]266|200[/hv]

 

System is 15-17 1NT with 5 card majors, 4 card Diamond, Short Club

 

South downgraded slightly rebidding 1NT with poor spade cards, soft values, and no clear alternative

 

North couldn't see a good slam opposite a weak 1NT rebid.

 

Who should have done what?

We play system on more or less as if the auction has gone unopposed 1-1-1N so 2 would be artificial here and 3 showing 5 and a maximum would be bid over it (Crowhurst style), now the slam is not far fetched at all (It's excellent with 108x, doesn't need Q10x).

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