Free Posted June 3, 2011 Report Share Posted June 3, 2011 A general question: suppose you open 1NT, partner transfers to a Major and you superaccept. Responder now shows a specific shortness below 3NT. If opener bids 3NT after that, should this be a suggestion to play (despite the 9 card Major fit) or not? A specific situation in a GF auction:1♣ - 1NT (16+ any ; GF balanced -> system on)2♦ - 2♠! (TRF 5+♥ ; not minimum with 4+♥ and not 4333)2NT! - 3♣! (shortness ♦ or ♠ ; asking)3♥! - 3NT? (0-1♠ ; ???) (playing frivolous 3♠, 3NT might be a serious slam try with ♠ cue ; the alternative is suggestion to play with lost values in ♠) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted June 3, 2011 Report Share Posted June 3, 2011 You're considering playing 3NT as natural when you have a 9-card major-suit fit and one of the hands has a singleton? I think it would be more useful to play 3NT as asking for the jack of diamonds. 3 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 4, 2011 Author Report Share Posted June 4, 2011 Me and partner had a disagreement in PB just wanted to check how sane I am. Thanks for the response and up-votes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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