lamford Posted June 1, 2011 Report Share Posted June 1, 2011 I thought you were allowed to correct a bid to another bid/call that showed the same hand or a more specific version of it, which X would be for us, but that didn't appear in the 2007 laws, has it come later ?Presumably double is more general than 3D, so I would be surprised if it was allowed as a substitution. Are you saying that in your system big hands with no alternative bid would not double? Not that allowing double will, as you say, lead to a good result. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted June 1, 2011 Report Share Posted June 1, 2011 Presumably double is more general than 3D, so I would be surprised if it was allowed as a substitution. Are you saying that in your system big hands with no alternative bid would not double? Not that allowing double will, as you say, lead to a good result.We play a GF 2N not necessarily balanced with/without the 2♠ bid, so both X and 2♦ are limited. The only differences are that 2♦ might have 5, X is 4, 3♦ is limited with 5, and 2♦ could be a 5-4 10 count, whereas we'll resist the temptation to double with a real pile, so X is more specific. We open 1N or pass with any 5332 12-14 never 1 suit (unless we upgrade, in which case we have to bid 2N now) so there's no issue what to with a 2533. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted June 1, 2011 Report Share Posted June 1, 2011 We play a GF 2N not necessarily balanced with/without the 2♠ bid, so both X and 2♦ are limited. The only differences are that 2♦ might have 5, X is 4, 3♦ is limited with 5, and 2♦ could be a 5-4 10 count, whereas we'll resist the temptation to double with a real pile, so X is more specific. We open 1N or pass with any 5332 12-14 never 1 suit (unless we upgrade, in which case we have to bid 2N now) so there's no issue what to with a 2533.So what would you do with a 2-5-3-3 19-count without a spade stop? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted June 2, 2011 Report Share Posted June 2, 2011 So what would you do with a 2-5-3-3 19-count without a spade stop?Bid 2N, as I said, game forcing and not necessarily balanced, 2N is artificial and can be void in spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted June 2, 2011 Report Share Posted June 2, 2011 Bid 2N, as I said, game forcing and not necessarily balanced, 2N is artificial and can be void in spades.I can only accept your system as you state, but does it not seem inefficient from a bridge point of view, that all hands that would bid 2♦ (typo corrected) could also double, giving an equal or more specific meaning? And if the TD thinks you will double, you are likely to get a worse result than 2♠-2. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted June 2, 2011 Report Share Posted June 2, 2011 I can only accept your system as you state, but does it not seem inefficient from a bridge point of view, that all hands that would bid 2S could also double, giving an equal or more specific meaning? And if the TD thinks you will double, you are likely to get a worse result than 2♠-2.It works well in practice, but on this hand not so well, if I was playing pairs, we'd play 3♣ and make it a fair proportion of the time (decision as to whether to play for K10x/xx or Kxx/10x in trumps), but persuading the director we'd make it might be difficult which was why I said I was glad I hadn't met it in real play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
VixTD Posted June 2, 2011 Author Report Share Posted June 2, 2011 I actually gave an adjusted score based on some proportion of 3♣(W)-1 and some proportion of 3NT(E/W)-2, assuming that East would still bid 3♦ some of the time. I agree now that I shouldn't have included that, and should have included some of 2♠(N)-1. Thank you, Campboy et al. I'm still not convinced I should have done anything at all, as the players were quite happy to rule on the insufficient bid themselves in the first instance. Is the fact that all players had a duty to call the director sufficient to regard EW as partly at fault for not calling the TD? Would it depend on the experience of the players? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted June 2, 2011 Report Share Posted June 2, 2011 I actually gave an adjusted score based on some proportion of 3♣(W)-1 and some proportion of 3NT(E/W)-2, assuming that East would still bid 3♦ some of the time. I agree now that I shouldn't have included that, and should have included some of 2♠(N)-1. Thank you, Campboy et al. I'm still not convinced I should have done anything at all, as the players were quite happy to rule on the insufficient bid themselves in the first instance. Is the fact that all players had a duty to call the director sufficient to regard EW as partly at fault for not calling the TD? Would it depend on the experience of the players?To some extent, locally here in club bridge, if both pairs knew enough of the rules and there was (as there usually is) a playing director, getting as far as "Do you accept it" - "No" - "I'll correct it to 3♦ as both bids are natural" saves a lot of time even if technically incorrect procedure, director would be called every time if it was not this simple a correction. In an event with a non playing director, or where one pair is unsure, he should certainly be called and usually will be, although I'm not sure either side should lose all rights for not doing so as it is one that would require a call back at the end anyway, and I don't think director intervention at the proper time would have changed anything. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted June 3, 2011 Report Share Posted June 3, 2011 I actually gave an adjusted score based on some proportion of 3♣(W)-1 and some proportion of 3NT(E/W)-2, assuming that East would still bid 3♦ some of the time. I agree now that I shouldn't have included that, and should have included some of 2♠(N)-1. I think 3♦ (not preceded by an IB) would be SEWoG. ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RMB1 Posted June 3, 2011 Report Share Posted June 3, 2011 As is usually the case, I think campboy has this right. I agree with gordontd: despite being a lone voice, campboy has got the right approach to Law 27D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted June 3, 2011 Report Share Posted June 3, 2011 <snip> despite being a lone voice, campboy has got the right approach <snip>Not so; it was at least a madrigal, as both gordontd and I agreed with him. But he was first. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted June 5, 2011 Report Share Posted June 5, 2011 I agree with gordontd: despite being a lone voice, campboy has got the right approach to Law 27D. Not so; it was at least a madrigal, as both gordontd and I agreed with him. But he was first. I'm having a hard time understanding how his approach differs from mine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted June 6, 2011 Report Share Posted June 6, 2011 I think 3♦ (not preceded by an IB) would be SEWoG. ;)I agree; and I think it is the first time I have seen a SEWoG included as part of a weighted score! Of curiosity value, a bit like Graham Poll's three yellow cards in that Australia v Croatia match. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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