Bbradley62 Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 Playing an Indy, I opened 1♦ with:[hv=pc=n&s=sqj76hak65dak76ck]210|140[/hv]LHO overcalled 1♥ and pard bid 1♠ and I chose to simply bid 4♠ instead of investigating further. When my hand was exposed as dummy, I was greeted with:[LHO]→Table: oh my god only 1 diamond????She said that this was a clear 2NT opener. How common is it these days to open 2N (or 1N, with proper HCP) with a singleton? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 Opening 1♦ is fine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
manudude03 Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 I'd open 1D but don't think 2NT is terrible. I would have rebid 4C though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bbradley62 Posted May 29, 2011 Author Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 I would have rebid 4C though.Agreed, except that partner was a self-identified beginner. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 I would have opened 2NT, but 1D is fine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 I'd open 2 NT and indeed i do it a lot. To waranth i play the hand, not because i wanna hog but to play it from strong hand and it makes things easier when i show my limit in 1 bid. 1 ♦ is of course the normal opening with this, i'd rebid 4♣ though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 2NT is ok, so is 1D. A singleton king is very different from a small singleton. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 One more vote for 1D is fine. If 4C is, in fact, a splinter (there are some who use this as a giant 4-6 in the pointed suits "no name"), then 4C is fine, too. Otherwise, showing a relatively balanced jump to game in Spades is ok. Many have mentioned in the past how a 2NT opening is a slam killer, and avoiding that bid when another is available seems to be a good idea. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 Mark me in for 2N, but I would never be like ZOMG if someone opened 1D. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
menggq Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 1♦ or 2N openning bids r both ok.For this bidding sequence:1D 1H 1S P4S All Pass 1S=♠5+ 6HCP+,so N/S sd reach a game no doubt.Since might hv a slam contract,cue bid 2♥ or Spl 4♣ wd be better than 4♠ directly. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 I dont get it easy 2nt open in any event 4s easy not 4c Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted May 29, 2011 Report Share Posted May 29, 2011 I'd bid 2H, not 4C or 4S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted May 30, 2011 Report Share Posted May 30, 2011 Both 1♦ and 2NT openings are fine. It's not like one of these stands out... I'd rather yell "omg only 4♠" rather than "omg only 1♦". ;) Singletons are acceptable in NT openings imo. Some people agree with this, some want the Ace or King, some disagree completely. It depends a lot on the hand because 4441's can be very good holdings when there's a fit, and opening 1NT might hide that playing strength. Basically it would be a lot better for many bidding systems if all deals with a 4441 distribution were banned, but when you're dealt one you have to cope with it. Sometimes I open 1m (offensive hands like this one), sometimes 1NT/2NT (fewer controls). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jmcw Posted May 30, 2011 Report Share Posted May 30, 2011 It's a clear 2N opening for me. The problem with 1♦ will be catching up with your rebid.1♦>>1M>>4M doesn't quite get my values across, better is 1♦>>1M>>♣splinter which I can live with. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jmcw Posted May 30, 2011 Report Share Posted May 30, 2011 BTW doesn't 1♦>>1M>>4M deny a stiff, usually 18/19 balanced? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted May 30, 2011 Report Share Posted May 30, 2011 It's a clear 2N opening for me. The problem with 1♦ will be catching up with your rebid.1♦>>1M>>4M doesn't quite get my values across, better is 1♦>>1M>>♣splinter which I can live with. BTW doesn't 1♦>>1M>>4M deny a stiff, usually 18/19 balanced? Since it is a clear 2NT opening for you, perhaps you will excuse those to would open 1D, then treat the hand as balanced after a 1M response. The only problem is the extra one HCP, which seems ok, too, given the awkwardness of handling 4-4-4-1 hands to begin with 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tolvyrj Posted May 30, 2011 Report Share Posted May 30, 2011 IMO u opening of 1 ♦ was very correct one. And with such prd ( dont mean beginner rather unknown one) 4 ♠ would have been my choice too.Opening 2Nt with 20 hcp. 4441 shape and singleton king... i mean why. U hand aint worth 20 hcp. and i can think several hand where u prd has long ♣ and u will be in trouble.Stick to u sys; 3-suiters especially strong ones tend to be pain in the...well u know where, but that is no reason IMO to bend system that much. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted May 30, 2011 Report Share Posted May 30, 2011 Opening 2Nt with 20 hcp. 4441 shape and singleton king... i mean why. U hand aint worth 20 hcp. and i can think several hand where u prd has long ♣ and u will be in trouble. When you point out a negative possibility such as pd having ♣ and being in trouble after a 2 NT opening, i expect you to have a miracle cure for it that doesnt put you in trouble after 1♦ opening. How are you planning to avoid this trouble after 1♦ ? You can bid 2 NT showing 18-19 hcp and pd may pass but then again he may have his beans in side suits where 3 NT is cold. Or you can choose to pattern your hand with reverse and then 3rd suit, and god knows where you will stop that rig. In fact by opening 2NT, we are the only ones who actually can stop b4 game and play there, although playing 3NT is not that of a great deal when game is not there, but at least we didnt get doubled yet (which may not be the case if Joe Grue is sitting as opponent) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tolvyrj Posted May 31, 2011 Report Share Posted May 31, 2011 I dont quite follow u reasoning but lets try. 2Nt promises 2 cards in every suit including ♣, 1 ♦ does not.In which kind of trouble am i with these cards if i open 1♦and prd bids his ♣ in 2 level? Yes i dont know where that rig is going to take us, but i dont see any reason to stay below game level, au contraire says the french.Here u r trying to advocate 2Nt bid to use in a hand that is a) not balanced and b) has a singleton king in 20 hcp. count. Even though u may think im a stubborn fool ( i do hope u dont though ;) ) i would like to ask why? U have a perfectly good natural bid available why not use that? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted May 31, 2011 Report Share Posted May 31, 2011 Or you can choose to pattern your hand with reverse and then 3rd suit, and god knows where you will stop that rig. This would be an unusual auction, since the only suit available to reverse into is clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted May 31, 2011 Report Share Posted May 31, 2011 Or you can choose to pattern your hand with reverse and then 3rd suit, and god knows where you will stop that rig.This would be an unusual auction, since the only suit available to reverse into is clubs.Bidding any number of ♣ is never a reverse according to the definition of a reverse. After 1♦-1NT you have 2 reverses: 2♥ and 2♠. MrAce only means to pattern out by bidding 1♦ followed by 2♥ followed by 3♠, or 1♦ followed by 2♠ followed by 3♥. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 31, 2011 Report Share Posted May 31, 2011 BTW doesn't 1♦>>1M>>4M deny a stiff, usually 18/19 balanced? Great comment. 1m - 1M - 4M showed a big balanced hand at one time, but many have shifted to 1x - 1M - 4M to be a distributional hand that just wants to bid game. This leaves 1m - 1M - (splinter) and 1m - 1M - 4m to be really good hands instead of some 14 point 6430. 18-19 point balanced hands are handled by 3M, but if you have a really good balanced GF, like a 4522 some like to play 3M minus 1, so 1♣ - 1♥ - 3♦ can be this hand type. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted May 31, 2011 Report Share Posted May 31, 2011 Bidding any number of ♣ is never a reverse according to the definition of a reverse. Of course, but... After 1♦-1NT you have 2 reverses: 2♥ and 2♠. MrAce only means to pattern out by bidding 1♦ followed by 2♥ followed by 3♠, or 1♦ followed by 2♠ followed by 3♥. A reverse (not by definition, but as it's understood and played) must be into a shorter suit than the one originally opened. My point was that there are no reverses that can be made with this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted May 31, 2011 Report Share Posted May 31, 2011 Bidding any number of ♣ is never a reverse according to the definition of a reverse. After 1♦-1NT you have 2 reverses: 2♥ and 2♠. In the weird old days, a 3♣ rebid would sometimes be called a "high reverse" Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tolvyrj Posted May 31, 2011 Report Share Posted May 31, 2011 They call me stone-age George i know, but i still play it like that. Jump in the lower ranking suit is reverse in my books B-) . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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