rdbl?

[bftboy]

[hv=pc=n&s=sakq2haqtdk87cat2]133|100[/hv]

 

MPs, non vul. 2♣ by S, 2♦ by N and E dbls. Is this a redouble? If not, what would be? If not a rdbl, what is best action now?

 

thx

[Bbradley62]

I think pass is the best option now, since you don't have anything you're particularly dying to say. Partner will know that you have a hand strong enough to open 2♣, no biddable (5card) suit, and not good enough diamonds to redouble; he can probably work out that you intended to rebid 2NT before the double, so he's in a good position to be the decision-maker.

[ArtK78]

Pass in this type of auction shows a balanced hand.

 

Redouble, since it is to play, shows diamonds. Kxx is not enough. :)

[aguahombre]

Agree that pass shows a balanced hand, and the redouble would suggest we might want to play it there.

 

But, opener planned to rebid 2NT, which would allow responder to act accordingly and I don't see why Righty's double should interfere with that plan. If opener had the same balanced hand but without a diamond stopper, then pass would make more sense --taking advantage of the double, rather than being hindered by it.

[kayin801]

Don't bid your hand twice.

 

Agree that XX should be to play anyway.

[P_Marlowe]

XX should show a strong desire to play 2Dxx, usually XX should be based

on a good 4 card suit, with Kxx you can pass and await further dev.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

[Phil]

2N for me.

 

Passing shows a balanced 22-23 or so. Thats what we have, yet...

 

Does it promise a diamond stopper? Hell if I know.

 

Who discusses these auction? I guess partner could bid 3♦ with a hand he would have bid Stayman on, but still might be guessing later on.

 

Its matchpoints. Try not to get carried away shooting for some unlikely target of 2♦ xx'd. Or trying to get 3N right-sided when partner figures out to bid it with ♦Qx, which he doesn't have anyway.

[Gerben42]

Do I long to play 2♦XX? Not really. Do I have extras? Not really. Pass.

[bftboy]

I find the arguments for pass persuasive. We should easily find a major suit fit if we have one, and it might be best if P declares, and I can always bid nt later, but....

 

I do think there is more to the case for a rdbl than has been discussed, esp. at mp's and esp at equal or fav vul. First, how much better a ♦ holding than this should I reasonably be expected to hold for a rdbl after rho's lead director? Do I really have to wait for K9xx or maybe Kxxxx? Is the point of the rdbl to say I've got great ♦s, or to ask P what he thinks about trying to scramble 8 tricks in that suit? He can always say he isn't interested.

 

FWIW, I bid 2nt, and after a xfr auction wound up in 4♥, down 1 after the ♦ lead. Pass wouldn't have worked better, as P would be down at 4♥ also. 3nt has chances, but, of course, P turns up with ♦ Qxx and 2 ♦ xx makes. I feel like I had a chance to turn the lead director against rho, and didn't do it.

[Lurpoa]

[hv=pc=n&s=sakq2haqtdk87cat2]133|100[/hv]

 

MPs, non vul. 2♣ by S, 2♦ by N and E dbls. Is this a redouble? If not, what would be? If not a rdbl, what is best action now?

 

thx

 

 

 

 

Definitively something to agree with your partner.

Also BWS2001 doesn't give a response to this.

 

My logic would be: pass= regular hand no stop (partner has to do something!; what is his redouble now ?),. Rdble= a proposal to play 2♦XX with at least KJXX, I would say.

[pes_6]

First you must confirm with partner what play (like ask a stopper that doubled e.g. 1c-(1h)-2h-(x)-?). In this situation some players play xx for haven't stopper, PASS for have stopper, and 2nt for double stopper. If you play this type of continues, sequence 2c-(pass)-2d-(x)-? continue:

 

2h/2s/3c- 22+, 5+ in bid suit

PASS- 22+, 5+ cards in diamond suit

xx- 22+, less than 5 cards in diamond suit (unbalanced)

3d- 22+, balanced, ask for stopper

2nt- 22-23, balanced, stopper in diamond

3nt- 24+, balanced, stopper in diamond

 

So my bid with your hand is 2nt.

[kenberg]

Probably there is a lot to be said for a pass if we have discussed this, as well as what happens next, but if we haven't then I think that there is a fine chance partner will not hold a five card suit and will not have a diamond stopper and, therefore, will not have the slightest idea what to do when the auction gets back to him. I suppose he will bid some major. Now back to me. Partner's 2H bid showed what? Should I raise hearts? Bid 2NT? If I bid 2NT right away I am pretty sure I will understand partner's next bid.

 

So, imo, 2NT has theory going for it, 2NT will make life easier. Qxx in the opposite hand is unlucky. For that matter, partner might have seen the ruff coming and raised to 3NT. I don't second guess my partners, but it is a possibility that he could do that.

[han]

Pass. Good chance that 3NT is better from partner's side.

[aguahombre]

Pass. Good chance that 3NT is better from partner's side.

How does partner know to bid 3NT with those holdings where it is better from his side? (say, queen doubleton)

 

Not debating what u say. There definitely is a good chance pard should be declaring 3NT; I just don't see how it would happen.

[han]

Could partner hold Qxx? Seems like a possibility to me.

 

Also, what would redouble by partner be? If it is takeout, we could bid 2S and perhaps partner could bid 2NT now. He's a thinking bridge player too. Or if redouble is penalty, perhaps partner bids 2H (which could be a 4-card suit), we'd bid 2S, partner would bid 2NT, we'd bid 3H, partner would bid 3S and we would bid 3NT.

 

I actually don't know what the redouble means. Here in the Netherlands, nobody plays that 2C is strong, so I don't actually have agreements about this. If people double 2D, it shows a takeout double of my presumed diamonds. My pass would show that indeed, I have a weak hand with diamonds.

[kenberg]

Not knowing what the redouble would mean was part of my thinking that 2NT is the best practical bid. Suppose I pass 2D and it rolls to partner. I don't know what XX means and he can probably be trusted to know that I don't know. So he will not redouble. On many hands, this puts him in a serious bind. It's not just pick up where this will be a problem. I cannot think of a single partnership that I have ever had where I would be confident of the meaning of XX after the X of 2D and then two passes.

 

To put it another way: If the partnership is uncertain of whether the current hand is adequate for a direct XX over the double, it is very unlikely that they have discussed what a pass followed by a pass and then an XX means.

 

So 2NT over the X, then we all know what the follow-ups mean.

[han]

Sorry but how can this hand ever be sufficient for a redouble? We have king THIRD of diamonds, how can you even think of redoubling?