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Unless I have a weak hand with 6, I routinely bid 2/1N, why shouldnt I?

 

Aside from all the reasons mentioned by Frances and a cast of many, there is no mention in the OP that you would do that.

 

When you merely state "2/1" and give this auction, we should be able to assume that responder has shown long diamonds, just short of game force; that opener's 2c rebid is not a gadget; and that by bidding 3S over 3D opener has more than a minimum, 6 spades and 4 clubs.

 

 

A question with a less-obvious answer would be, "What would 3H mean?" -- extra values for sure, but diamonds? pattern? probe?

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Aside from all the reasons mentioned by Frances and a cast of many, there is no mention in the OP that you would do that.

 

When you merely state "2/1" and give this auction, we should be able to assume that responder has shown long diamonds, just short of game force; that opener's 2c rebid is not a gadget; and that by bidding 3S over 3D opener has more than a minimum, 6 spades and 4 clubs.

 

 

A question with a less-obvious answer would be, "What would 3H mean?" -- extra values for sure, but diamonds? pattern? probe?

And that was my hand in the original question(6xx4) This disucssion has morphed into rebids with 6322,5332

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It indeed morphed. And you are content that the bidding described your strength and black-suit shape on your actual hand.

 

If you would have rebid 2C with those week 6-3-3-2 hands, or bid 3S now on some 5-3-3-2 hands, then what you showed on the original hand would be gone out the window. And that answers "Why shouldn't I?".

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With my regular partner, we rebid 2C on 5332. Partner knows I can have as few as 2, it is a pass/correct situation.

If I rebid 2D on 5332 and partner holds a weak hand, 2335 we will be playing in 3C when we should be in 2C.

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A question with a less-obvious answer would be, "What would 3H mean?" -- extra values for sure, but diamonds? pattern? probe?

 

It's Fourth Suit Forcing. The sequence is unusual, but the conditions are almost identical to those in a standard FSF sequence: we've bid three suits, haven't yet found a fit, can't have a fit in the fourth suit, may belong in any of the other four strains, and may or may not have a stop in the unbid suit.

 

With a 5314, enough to bid game and a heart stop, you'd have a 3NT bid.

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With my regular partner, we rebid 2C on 5332. Partner knows I can have as few as 2, it is a pass/correct situation.

If I rebid 2D on 5332 and partner holds a weak hand, 2335 we will be playing in 3C when we should be in 2C.

 

Why would partner bid 3C? With a 2335, it's nearly always right to bid 2S (2NT if strong enough).

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jilly: I would say more or less what gerben said or, eventually, a hand stuck for a bid due to lack of heart stop, i.e.

 

AQJxx

xx

Kx

Axxx

 

Remember that very important principle that people tend to fgorget: "undiscussed bids are NATURAL." :)

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Rebiding 2 with all balanced hands (except when strong enough for 2NT) wins when responder has six clubs, though. And when responder has six diamonds it probably doesn't matter much. It loses when responder is 1444, 0454 or 1354 and will pass (or raise) any minor suit rebid.
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