jillybean Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 2/1 1♠:1N*2♣:3♦3♠: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
menggq Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 I think the key question is what's the 3♦ meaning?1.3♦=SPL ♦single ♣5+(since 2♣ can be 4-cards) 10hcp+2.3♦=good ♦suit inv hand I prefer 3♦=SPL for ♣ FIT ♦single. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 Opener has a nice hand with clubs and 6 spades, responder some 10-12 with diamonds, very probably not balanced. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 What is a direct 3♦? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 14, 2011 Author Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 What is a direct 3♦?Bergen Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tolvyrj Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 Im not a 2/1 expert so i would like to know what 2♦ would have meant? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 2/1 1♠:1N*2♣:3♦3♠: Well, I play BWS2001 (with BART), andin this sequence 3♦ is preemptive to play (Not invitational). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 Without any specific other agreements, 3D is natural invitational - a decent 6-card suit. Opener would usually pass or bid 3NT; 3S should be forcing with good spades - with an unsuitable hand for diamonds, just pass. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 Im not a 2/1 expert so i would like to know what 2♦ would have meant?The basic idea is that after a 1NT response, responder's second bid means the same as it would in a non-2/1 style but that bids that would be "impossible" in a non-2/1 style can be used for hands that are stronger than a 1NT-responce in non-2/1 style, i.e. appr 11 points. Also, responder tries to cater to opener having only three clubs. So (needless to say the "points" should not be taken too literally except for the 2NT rebid): 1♠-1NT2♣-? - Pass: 5-7 points, 4+ clubs- 2♦/♥: 5-9 points 5+ in the suit (non-2/1 textbooks might say 6+ but with 1(54)3 you have no other option since opener might have only 3 clubs)- 2♠: 5-9 with two spades or 5-6(7) with three spades, depending on your agreements about the strength required for a direct 2♠- 2NT: "impossible": appr 11 points, less than three spades- 3♣: appr. 8-9 points, hopefully 5+ clubs. Try to bid 2NT with 11 points as that sounds more encouraging. Try to bid something else with only four clubs.- 3♦/♥: "impossible": 10-11 points, 6+ card suit, hopefully a good suit- 3♠: "impossible", 3-card limit raise. A direct 3♠ would show 4 (but some partnerships disagree with this, and some have other ways of showing a 3-card limit raise directly) Some play a direct 3♦/♥ as showing a single suited hand with invitational values. Then you can use the indirect 3♦/♥ to show a splinter. Also, some play a different structure after the 2♣ rebid with responder's 2♦ now being artificial. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 duplicate response Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 Also, some play a different structure after the 2♣ rebid with responder's 2♦ now being artificial.Elaborating, if 2♣ is natural, then 2♦ would be weak, to play. However, you may agree that 2♣ could be any strong hand (say 17+) and not necessarily clubs. Then a 2♦ reply would be a GF artificial positive to ask opener to clarify his hand. If this is the case, then a 3♦ rebid rather than a 2♦ rebid shows a very weak hand (6/7 count) with long diamonds, and can be passed. After this, 3♠ is a game force. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 14, 2011 Author Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 (edited) Without any specific other agreements, 3D is natural invitational - a decent 6-card suit. Opener would usually pass or bid 3NT; 3S should be forcing with good spades - with an unsuitable hand for diamonds, just pass.This is how I hoped it would be understood. I held Axxxxx,Qx,x,AKJx and decided my A 6th spades weren't good enough to bid 3♠/1N (corrected typo, 3♠ not 2♠}but hoped my 3♠ bid later would show 6. Edited May 16, 2011 by jillybean Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted May 14, 2011 Report Share Posted May 14, 2011 With a minimum, partner should pass 3♦ so he has extras with 6 - 4 but no stopper in ♥ and wants you to pick a game. Perhaps he has: [hv=pc=n&n=saqt652h4dk6ckq95&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1sp1n(forcing)p2cp3dp3s]133|200[/hv] Note that 6 - 4 hands with a minimum would bid 2♠ directly, so that also1♠ - 1NT - 2♣ - 2♦ - 2♠ shows this kind of hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 15, 2011 Author Report Share Posted May 15, 2011 So, how do you bid 14hcp 6232 hands after 1♠:1N 2♣:3♦? Do you support ♦'s and give up on a ♠ fit? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 (edited) So, how do you bid 14hcp 6232 hands after 1♠:1N 2♣:3♦? Do you support ♦'s and give up on a ♠ fit?You don't. I mean, you don't bid 2♣ with 6232 - either bid 2♠ or 3♠. Maybe rarely there is a hand where you would bid 2♦, but I would not do it very often, and certainly not with a 14hcp hand. Edited May 16, 2011 by cherdano Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 BART fwiw BART is a very common convention here. 3d=6d less than invite. 1s=1nt2c=3d iam rather surprised I am the first to mention this very very common conv. AKxxx...xxx...x...AJxx x....xxxx....AKJxxx....xx 2d here is artificial/most common is weakish with 5+h. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 16, 2011 Author Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 You don't. I mean, you don't bid 2♣ with 6232 - either bid 2♠ or 3♠. Maybe rarely there is a hand where you would bid 3♦, but I would not do it very often, and certainly not with a 14hcp hand.Partner bid 3♦, Im not suggesting opener bids 3♦.Unless I have a weak hand with 6♠, I routinely bid 2♣/1N, why shouldnt I? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 Partner bid 3♦, Im not suggesting opener bids 3♦.Unless I have a weak hand with 6♠, I routinely bid 2♣/1N, why shouldnt I?Partner might pass 2♣ :(Or raise clubs. Then with extras I suppose you could bid 3♠ but that could get you too high. And p might insist on clubs, taking you back to 4♣/5♣.It is true that 2♣ only shows three but that is when you have a balanced hand. Once you bid the spades again he will assume 6-4. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 Hi, We play 3D in this seq. as a Fit Jump, but we also play that the direct 3D bid showes the inv. single suiter. The weak single suiter, can be shown via 2D. If you play, that 2D over 1S is GF - than it may make sense to play the delayedjump as inv. So the answer to the question, what 3D in the given seq. showes depends heavily onthe answers to the question, what does 1S - 3D and what does it mean if responder rebids his suit on the 3 level. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 Partner bid 3♦, Im not suggesting opener bids 3♦.Unless I have a weak hand with 6♠, I routinely bid 2♣/1N, why shouldnt I? If you have a bid to show the 6th spade, instead of a bid that could be basedon a 3 card suit - why would you choose the less descriptive bid?of course, if you play some artifical stuff, that involves a 2C relais to differentiatevarious hand types / strengts, than by all means play it, but than menationed it andhopefully your partner knoes as well, that 2C is artificial and forcing. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 Partner bid 3♦, Im not suggesting opener bids 3♦.Unless I have a weak hand with 6♠, I routinely bid 2♣/1N, why shouldnt I?Sorry 3♦ was a typo, I meant 2♦. Don't bid 2♣ on a 2-card suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 Unless I have a weak hand with 6♠, I routinely bid 2♣/1N, why shouldnt I?Because you have 6 spades and you don't have 4 clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 BART fwiw BART is a very common convention here. 3d=6d less than invite. 1s=1nt2c=3d iam rather surprised I am the first to mention this very very common conv. AKxxx...xxx...x...AJxx x....xxxx....AKJxxx....xx 2d here is artificial/most common is weakish with 5+h. Right; and part of BWS2001 ! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted May 16, 2011 Author Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 I obviously have a basic misunderstanding of how these hands should be bid. What is your response after 1♠:1N* with these hands 533253235233 Minimum hand:632263236233 Maximum hand:632263236233 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted May 16, 2011 Report Share Posted May 16, 2011 (Answers inserted, sorry for the formatting) I obviously have a basic misunderstanding of how these hands should be bid. What is your response after 1♠:1N* with these hands 53322♦532352332♣ on both of them Minimum hand:6322632362332♠ Maximum hand:632263236233Depends on what maximum means - if too good for 2♠ you bid 3♠, if too good for that you bid 3NT or jump-shift into your 3-card suit.It used to be a popular forum style in the last decade to rebid your 3-card minor with 6=2=(3-2) when you have an inbetweeen hand - i.e. too good for 2♠ and not good enough for 3♠. The idea is that you then raise the expected 2♠ preference to 3♠ - at least this way you avoid playing 3♠ opposite a minimum with a spade singleton.But really, the hand where that is right seems to come up rarely. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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