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1-5-1-6


han

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I'm not sure how to bid this hand.

 

Matchpoints, all vul.

 

x

AKJxx

x

Q109xxx

 

1D - 1H

2D - ??

 

Do you agree with 1H or would you start with a gameforcing 2C? What do you do after 2D?

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It will be very hard for partner to have 3 even if you only raise with 4 cards. Pass and then reopen with 3 is a strong option.

 

I expected the opponents to bid spades already that's why I would always start with 1, so that I can hear a support double and jump to game.

 

3 will gather 3NT from partner most likelly, and our game prospects are poor whatever the strain, so as Arend I think pass now is best.

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given the auction so far partner does not have a 4 card biddable suit, does not have 4, So is it significantly more probable that he has 3 than 3? If you believe so; take your last probable positive score and pass.
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You don't have a way to show this type of hand now, so I guess you have to pass. Opps have a bucketload of spades anyway and if they bid them, you might be able to show the clubs later, say

 

1 pass 1 pass

2 pass pass 2

pass pass 3

 

I'm not afraid of bidding clubs because after pard bypassed spades, we have 100% certainty of a fit somewhere.

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I think he should bid 2 rather than 2 (though 1 is an option too). If you're going to understate your values, it's better to do it with a bid that shows a fit rather than one that doesn't, because with a marginal hand partner is more likely to move.
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where is ?obviously opps hv 9 cards at least.since opps hv suit FIT we should hv FIT in other suit.that's why i wd like to bid 3 even if 3 is forcing and overbid in HCP view(based on good hand partern and must be FIT in some suit),i think the contract will be 4 or 5 more likely.
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I think he should bid 2 rather than 2 (though 1 is an option too). If you're going to understate your values, it's better to do it with a bid that shows a fit rather than one that doesn't, because with a marginal hand partner is more likely to move.

 

Interesting comment. I see 2H as an option but I didn't really think that 2D understated the values. I thought it was a maximum but not something unusual. I get your comment, 2H may be more likely to get partner to act, especially when he has 5 hearts.

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I'm not sure how to bid this hand.

 

Matchpoints, all vul.

 

x

AKJxx

x

Q109xxx

 

1D - 1H

2D - ??

 

Do you agree with 1H or would you start with a gameforcing 2C? What do you do after 2D?

 

pass = 1 the only reason it gets 1 is because there are a ton of worse bids that deserve

a zero (think 7d or 7s) and a host of others.

 

there is a huge amount of potential still left in this hand and to pass is just short of

dereliction of duty (ie knowingly passing p blackwood request). The potential misfit

does indeed inspire a sense of caution but that is all it does.

 

BID 2H

 

The heart suit is good enough to gather 3 maybe 4 tricks at the 2 level (if p passes) and

even more importantly it keeps the bidding open in case p had to slightly understate their

values.

 

Our potential is so good that games from 3n all the way to a slam at 6c are still plausible

Picture xxx Q AKxxxx AKx.

 

2h is indeed an underbid and it is the potential misfit that keeps us from bidding more

at this time. I would be happier with seeing a 2s bid (= 6) or a 3c bid (= 4) than

a pass.

 

2h = 9 (pass has to be right at least sometimes)

2s = 6 (not bad but would leave you poorly placed if p now bids 3n)

3c = 4 (just too agressive for the circumstances though not far off in value)

5c = 2 (WAG that has potential but you might too easily be burying a heart fit or missing 3n).

pass = 1 yes indeed sometimes this will work and it is probably a better MP

call than an IMP call.

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