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show the hand for us poor mortals who were working when it was being broadcasted

Board 60 in:

 

http://usbf.org/docs/vugraphs/USBC2011/hands/USBC2011_R8_2_31-60.PDF

 

Spade suit was Q32 -- AK874, both tables reached 6NT, after West opened 1NT, East bid Stayman and South doubled. After winning lead, Wooldridge played Q, to 7. Meck Q, to ace. South had singleton spade ten.

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Meckwell's sequence was:

 

1NT-Pa-2-X

Pa!-Pa-XX!-Pa

3NT-Pa-6NT-All pass

 

I couldn't get a hold of the other room's bidding sequence but I'm amazed Meckwell didn't find their spade fit/couldn't 'smollen' after the redouble. What was the sequence in the other room? Is that the best way to tacle the spade suit in that situation? (Maybe it is after the double and doubleton lead, but I think I might be resulting, although if the spade 'finesse' lost you could always resort to a (double?) squeeze?)

 

By the way only the results of Nickell's team victory are available online at USBF.org, i.e. only one segment out of four, why is that?

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The vugraph is here:

http://www.bridgebas...ph_archives.php

 

Nickell-Bathurst, set 4.

 

On the actual layout, after Meckstroth lost a spade and North returned a club, he'd still have been able to make it if he had been able to cash K - there's a double squeeze with hearts as the pivot.

 

If you think clubs are 6-2, the best line might be AQ, Q, spade finesse. If that loses, you have a red-suit squeeze when South is 2236, and a double squeeze if he is 2326 with 9 (without 9, he can break up the double squeeze by switching to hearts).

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I am probably biased by seeing full hand, but ducking a heart looks like a strong line also.

 

EDIT: I was biased, didn't see the likelly red suit squeeze, in fact if south had acted in the bidding you might maximice your play in spades knowing that you can more likelly squeeze north if spades are 3-2

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I've been thinking about what makes forum posters so much better than any non-forum posters. I think it's not discussions with very good players like gnasher or mikeh, since those are just the absolute correct answers and all they can do is agree with one another. I think it must be correcting fallacious arguments proposed by Humpty-Dumpties like me and some other posters here, that must teach them to think outside the box of logical soundness and hence make them more grateful for what they have. I think we, unnamed followers of shady logic and hasty conclusions, deserve our fair share of applause for these successes.
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Kit mentioned the same line in 6N as Andy. Certainly the x of 2 makes that very attractive if it occurs to you.

 

2xx'd looks an easy 960. Is it crazy for Meck to sit looking at 17??

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Board 60 in:

 

http://usbf.org/docs/vugraphs/USBC2011/hands/USBC2011_R8_2_31-60.PDF

 

Spade suit was Q32 -- AK874, both tables reached 6NT, after West opened 1NT, East bid Stayman and South doubled. After winning lead, Wooldridge played Q, to 7. Meck Q, to ace. South had singleton spade ten.

 

Surely this is restricted choice in action but with 3 top cards it gets weird. Does anyone have the math on this?

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Kit mentioned the same line in 6N as Andy. Certainly the x of 2 makes that very attractive if it occurs to you.

 

2xx'd looks an easy 960. Is it crazy for Meck to sit looking at 17??

Meck had 15 balanced opposite an unknown #, Rod had 17 opposite a 1NT opener, but unfortunately he could only pass 2x, not xx.

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The vugraph is here:

http://www.bridgebas...ph_archives.php

 

Nickell-Bathurst, set 4.

 

On the actual layout, after Meckstroth lost a spade and North returned a club, he'd still have been able to make it if he had been able to cash K - there's a double squeeze with hearts as the pivot.

 

If you think clubs are 6-2, the best line might be AQ, Q, spade finesse. If that loses, you have a red-suit squeeze when South is 2236, and a double squeeze if he is 2326 with 9 (without 9, he can break up the double squeeze by switching to hearts).

 

Yes, this was our teams post mortem (that cashing diamonds first is best).

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I think jlall would be the first to agree that hearing the correct answers from gnasher and mikeh was what did it for him. ;)

 

The vugraph is here:

http://www.bridgebas...ph_archives.php

 

Nickell-Bathurst, set 4.

 

On the actual layout, after Meckstroth lost a spade and North returned a club, he'd still have been able to make it if he had been able to cash K - there's a double squeeze with hearts as the pivot.

 

If you think clubs are 6-2, the best line might be AQ, Q, spade finesse. If that loses, you have a red-suit squeeze when South is 2236, and a double squeeze if he is 2326 with 9 (without 9, he can break up the double squeeze by switching to hearts).

Yes, this was our teams post mortem (that cashing diamonds first is best).

 

Seems the others still could learn by hearing the correct answers from gnasher :)

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Surely this is restricted choice in action but with 3 top cards it gets weird. Does anyone have the math on this?

 

If it's pure restricted choice, you can just compare a priori probailities, treating the honours as identical.

 

There are three ways that you can deal HHxx-H, and three ways that you can deal Hxx-HH.

 

With no information about anyone's shape, the 3-2 breaks are more likely in the ratio 6:5. (After we've distributed four of the spades 3-1, LHO has 10 vacant spaces and RHO has 12.)

Knowing that clubs are 3=5 makes the two distributions equally likely (13 - 3 - 3 = 13 - 5 - 1) .

Knowing that clubs are 2=6 makes the 4-1 breaks more likely in the ratio 4:3 (13 - 2 - 3 = 8; 13 - 6 - 1 = 6) .

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Meck had 15 balanced opposite an unknown #, Rod had 17 opposite a 1NT opener, but unfortunately he could only pass 2x, not xx.

 

Meckstroth's pass was "club stop, no major".

 

Rodwell xx'd with 17. The explanation was "willing to play".

 

I will re-phrase my question. "Once we have shown a club stopper, and partner has redoubled, is AKx good enough to convert"?

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Andy you are forgetting xx-HHH.

 

Good point. What was that you were saying about correct answers?

 

With clubs 2=6, I think that the finesse is still right, though. If we were adding a 3=2 break, that would make it evens, but we're actually adding a 2=3 break, which is less likely.

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Meckstroth's pass was "club stop, no major".

 

Rodwell xx'd with 17. The explanation was "willing to play".

 

I will re-phrase my question. "Once we have shown a club stopper, and partner has redoubled, is AKx good enough to convert"?

Hard to answer without knowing what "willing to play" exactly means. Seems to me that it's best if it's well defined (either the club holding of responder's, or the club holding that opener should pass with), but maybe it's just my over-reliance on clear and simple rules that's speaking.

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