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2/1 BWS 2001 Defaults


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Anybody to help me ?

 

Playing BWS2001 it is not clear to me what a 3or 3 by responder is after he initiated Stayman (bidding without interventions)

 

Stayman followed by 3 or 3 is ?

 

 

Following the general default, I would say it certainly is forcing, 5card of the bid minor and a 4card major. But is it merely showing game-going values, or is it showing slam-intrest (as it would be playing SAYC).

 

I tend to believe that the slam-intrest hand is the most efficient solution.

 

May I hear your opinions please. Thank you.

 

 

 

 

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In BWS it means whatever you and your partner think it should mean:

When a call could logically be interpreted as either forcing or nonforcing and there is no explicit agreement:

...

in a noncompetitive situation, treat as forcing or nonforcing by which seems more sensible to the observer

 

As for what it should mean in the context of the rest of BWS: this is the only way to bid a hand with four of a major and five of a minor (a transfer to a minor followed by a new suit is defined as shortage). With a game-going 4-6, it would be silly to have to guess what game to play, so I don't think it should promise a slam try. Of course, opposite a very suitable opener, a game-going hand might make slam anyway.

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In BWS it means whatever you and your partner think it should mean:

 

 

As for what it should mean in the context of the rest of BWS: this is the only way to bid a hand with four of a major and five of a minor (a transfer to a minor followed by a new suit is defined as shortage). With a game-going 4-6, it would be silly to have to guess what game to play, so I don't think it should promise a slam try. Of course, opposite a very suitable opener, a game-going hand might make slam anyway.

 

 

 

 

So just a game going hand with doubts about 3NT as a final destination.... ???

Seems reasonable as well. Ijust had some doubts, because in SAYC this sequence shows slam intrest.....

 

Bottom-line seems to be, that it is one of those sequences that need to be agreed with Partenr.

 

Thanks for your input.

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.....a game-going hand might make slam anyway.

 

The situation (Stayman, then 3m) is forcing for sure. But, could be either a hand showing doubt about strain or a hand with slam interest. After two of the 3 possible responses to Stayman, the follow-ups to 3m can clarify what is happening. After the other one (2H), it might get complicated.

 

1N-2C

2S-3D...3H can be used as a sort of LT type bid with a top NT opener and diamond support. It cannot be natural, because with 4-4 in the majors, opener would have bid 2H the first time. If responder had rebid 3C instead, opener would have a choice of 3D or 3H to show that. In the cases where opener has a max for the minor, responder has room to shut down if she did not have slam interest.

 

1N-2C

2D-3m..The NT opener has choices of cues at the 3-level to show cooperative interest in the minor slam.

 

However:

 

1N-2C

2H-3D...things could get murky. Obviously 3S now would set the 4-4 spade fit. But is 3H agreement of the minor with a max or merely showing a fifth heart?

 

1N-2C

2H-3C...3D is available, so the above problem is moot.

 

Another question to answer for your partnership: Does Stayman followed by 3m always show 4M and the longer minor? Having some other way to show one-minor slam interest would be helpful. It doesn't have to be 4-suit xfers; Walsh relays also work just fine in conjunction with 2-suit xfers.

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In BWS it means whatever you and your partner think it should mean:

 

 

As for what it should mean in the context of the rest of BWS: this is the only way to bid a hand with four of a major and five of a minor (a transfer to a minor followed by a new suit is defined as shortage). With a game-going 4-6, it would be silly to have to guess what game to play, so I don't think it should promise a slam try. Of course, opposite a very suitable opener, a game-going hand might make slam anyway.

I am sure everybody who helped constructing BWS or was on the panel to vote on it, as well as 99% of the readers who participated in the polls, assumed that this sequence is forcing. It's so obvious to everyone that it didn't occur anyone to mention it.

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So just a game going hand with doubts about 3NT as a final destination.... ???

Seems reasonable as well. Ijust had some doubts, because in SAYC this sequence shows slam intrest.....

 

Bottom-line seems to be, that it is one of those sequences that need to be agreed with Partenr.

 

Thanks for your input.

 

Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.

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Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.

 

 

 

 

Well, well.... indeed... reading the SAYC boklet, I think you are right. I wasn't really aware of that... and would have corrected with a 44 in the majors. But thinking about it, after the slam-intrest, it cannot hurt, to show the 4card spades too.... at the 3level...it is still possible, responder has 4 and 5 or more in his minor.

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I am sure everybody who helped constructing BWS or was on the panel to vote on it, as well as 99% of the readers who participated in the polls, assumed that this sequence is forcing. It's so obvious to everyone that it didn't occur anyone to mention it.

 

 

I don't think the question is "forcing of not ?" , but: does this sequnece show slam-intrest or just a game-going hand, which is not sure if 3NT is the best contract. Tx for your input.

 

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Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.

Does everyone/anyone agree with this ?

I've never heard of it .

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

I don't know if this is from 2001, but is what I learned shortly thereafter:

1NT - 2C

2M - 3m = 4oM/5+m, GF slammish, ie no fit for M

 

1NT - 2C

2D - 3m = 4 cards M / 5+m GF slammish

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Does everyone/anyone agree with this ?

I've never heard of it .

It's not really a matter of opinion. The definition of SAYC is available here:

 

http://web2.acbl.org/documentlibrary/play/SP3%20(bk)%20single%20pages.pdf

 

RESPONSES AND LATER BIDDING AFTER A 15–17 1NT OPENING

2 is "non-forcing" Stayman, meaning that the bidding may stop in two of a suit. Opener rebids 2 with 4–4 in the majors. If responder rebids three of either minor, he shows slam interest and at least a five-card suit.

If three of a minor showed a four-card major, I expect it would say so.

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Moreover, 1NT-2C-2whatever-3m in SAYC does not promise a four-card major; this is the only way to start slam auction in a minor, if playing SAYC.

gnasher.... thx for the ACBL link on SAYC, but NOWHERE does it validate the above statement.

 

It does NOT say " does not promise a four-card Major " after:

1NT - 2C

2any - 3m = 5+minor, slammish

 

So, if the auction goes ( the way I might play it ):

1NT - 2C

2H - 3m = 4 cards /5+m, GF slammish

??

...3S = 4/4 in the majors, interested in slam

...4S = 4/4 and not interested in slam

 

- - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - -

In other words, anytime Responder bids 3m-after-Stayman( and Opener's reply), he DOES promise a four-card Major.

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Does everyone/anyone agree with this ?

I've never heard of it .

- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -

I don't know if this is from 2001, but is what I learned shortly thereafter:

1NT - 2C

2M - 3m = 4oM/5+m, GF slammish, ie no fit for M

 

1NT - 2C

2D - 3m = 4 cards M / 5+m GF slammish

 

And how, pray tell, were you taught to show a single suited hand with a minor and game forcing values?

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And how, pray tell, were you taught to show a single suited hand with a minor and game forcing values?

As Aquahombre said in his post #4 :

" Having some other way to show one-minor slam interest would be helpful. It doesn't have to be 4-suit xfers; Walsh relays also work just fine in conjunction with 2-suit xfers. "

 

But I see neither are mentioned in the ACBL SAYC booklet.

Only the minor sign-offs and invites are stated.

 

Sooo, I guess that only leaves the Stayman sequence .... ugh.

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And how, pray tell, were you taught to show a single suited hand with a minor and game forcing values?

I was "taught" the SAYC way to play noncompetitive NT sequences, but quickly discovered way back in the late 60's that Stayman followed by G.F should really have a major.

 

As Aquahombre said in his post #4 :

" Having some other way to show one-minor slam interest would be helpful. It doesn't have to be 4-suit xfers; Walsh relays also work just fine in conjunction with 2-suit xfers. "

 

 

Being staid old farts, we choose the Walsh Relay option; but we have seen 4-suit xfer sequences in the hands of competent pairs, and they seem to work nicely, too.

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Being staid old farts, we choose the Walsh Relay option; but we have seen 4-suit xfer sequences in the hands of competent pairs, and they seem to work nicely, too.

 

 

 

In other worlds, you're not actually playing SAYC

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- - -- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -- - - -

In other words, anytime Responder bids 3m-after-Stayman( and Opener's reply), he DOES promise a four-card Major.

 

Still on SAYC:

To show clubs ONLY

1NT-3C = invite

1NT-2S(relay)3C = weak

1NT-2C-2whatever-3C = slam invite

 

How else (still by SAYC) are you going to bid a slam zone hand with a minor but no 4-card major?

 

I am not trying to say this is best, but it "is" what SAYC prescibes.

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