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Two matchpoint hands


bluecalm

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1. decent opps; both vul:

 

AJT43 97 9753 98

 

1 pass 2 3

3 ???

 

2. Q7 KJT8 A872 Q84

We are vul;

 

Pass 1* pass 1**

pass 2[hearts***pass pass

dbl pass 2NT dbl

pass pass 3 pass

pass ????

 

*polish club

** 7+pc, 4+hearts

*** 12-14pc and exactly 4 hearts, balanced

 

What now ?

 

Especially the first one is interesting to me. I suppose I know what the correct action is in 2nd but just want to double check this.

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3 & Pass. I think partner should have a nice hand for coming in at the three lvl and we could support at the 4 lvl, so why not name our spades. Partner can't expect too much from us as we passed on our first turn. Pass on the second one 'cause the hand is ugly to compete and we don't quite have a penalty so doubling might be dangerous.
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3S and pass both seem super obv

 

Interesting, my friends are convinced that double is 100% action on 2nd beacuse partner doubled 2NT bid expressing his desire to double them.

 

Is AJ10xx not good enough to follow 1S these days?

 

Well, we are vulnerable and it's matchpoints so we have to play much tighter than at imps. I think 1 is a bit too much especially at MP's.

 

Wish the first response transferred opener to declare.

 

I dunno. Usually it's better for 12-14balanced hand to be dummy imo but it doesn't matter anyway in polish club you have no choice.

 

Pass since partner declares. And he did not suggest DT's.

 

I don't get it all. I can't see how it matters that much that partner is going to declarer and I don't know what "DT's" are but if you mean defensive tricks I think partner suggested them by doubling 2NT.

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On the second one, we can be fairly sure that partner is 4=4=2=3. The opponents' bidding suggests that they don't have eight spades, so that gives partner four of them. RHO apparently has equal length in the minors, and LHO can't have two more clubs than he has diamonds. Hence partner must be 4=4=2=3 rather than 4=4=3=2.

 

I wouldn't call it obvious, but that suggests to me that we should double.

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On the second one, we can be fairly sure that partner is 4=4=2=3. The opponents' bidding suggests that they don't have eight spades, so that gives partner four of them. RHO apparently has equal length in the minors, and LHO can't have two more clubs than he has diamonds. Hence partner must be 4=4=2=3 rather than 4=4=3=2.

 

I wouldn't call it obvious, but that suggests to me that we should double.

I agree, if the worst case is that partner is 4432 after some strange opponent bidding, and partner is very likely to be 4423, I will take my chances.

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the first one is very close to me, our weakness suggests partner is quite heavy. Depending on how agressive is partner we should either pass and let him make his move to avoid getting too high, or act now if he is likelly to pass with a good hand.

 

 

The second one pass is a loser. Opponents have found a good defence over our partscore and passing can't beat 2. We have to act either way so it is double or 3. I lean towards double.

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Interesting, my friends are convinced that double is 100% action on 2nd beacuse partner doubled 2NT bid expressing his desire to double them.

 

 

I agree with your friends. If we can make 2H, 3C making -110 isn't earning us many matchpoints. What we don't want is 3C-2 +100 for below average.

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"I don't get it all. I can't see how it matters that much that partner is going to declarer and I don't know what "DT's" are but if you mean defensive tricks I think partner suggested them by doubling 2NT." -- bluecalm

 

** Yes DT's are defensive tricks. Sorry my cryptic mislead.

Yes DT's suggested if 2NT was not scrambling.

Wasn't many other bids strong, so 2NT is weak.

I mean which problem hand can only be handled with 2NT strong.

Many weak scramble hands.

Generally even 12-14bal has more tenaces than 7,

let alone the 1C may be much bigger.

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