mike777 Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 unfav vul imps 1c=(1s)=2d=(3s)p==p===? AQ5....AJ65....AQJ53....9 [edit by inquiry. I have been informed that this is Problem 7 Set 244 in BRIDGE magazine, reported in the May 2011 edition pp52,53. Please avoid from posting copyrighted material in hte forums. It is true that a hand or deal can not be copyrighted, but in these cases, it is proper to give proper attribution. ] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 Kind of a brutal hand, I would start with a double. If partner bids 4C I would like to think that 4N is natural, since 4H and 4S should both be club cuebids, but I'm not sure. I don't think a direct 4N is natural. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 Kind of a brutal hand, I would start with a double. If partner bids 4C I would like to think that 4N is natural, since 4H and 4S should both be club cuebids, but I'm not sure. I don't think a direct 4N is natural. This is exactly right for the majority. For the few who have 2♦ as unconditional game force, there are complications. Opener would have bid 4♣with 7 of them. Opener has only one spade and did not support diamonds. If she has three diamonds, her hand is weak. With 1-4-2-6 and a respectable opener, a double related to Snapdragon could have been used. So, if 2♦ was G.F, then 3NT here seems the practical bid, also allowing for the unlikely possibility that pard has two spades. If not, then Roger's reopening double must be right with this mountain responding hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 I don't know what is especially "british" about this hand or sequence, but X seems normal to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 I don't know what is especially "british" about this hand or sequence, Implying that 2-4-3-4 would open one heart? Dunno. Am on wrong side of pond. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 I expect Mike means that his opponents understand the benefits of preemptive bidding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RMB1 Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 You can read more opinions on this problem in BRIDGE magazine May 2011, pages 52+53. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 Don't suppose B.M., or parts of it, is on line? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 I expect Mike means that his opponents understand the benefits of preemptive bidding. That might be an interesting thread. Over here, opponents at the lower levels certainly don't; especially when it comes to raising the preempt. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hanoi5 Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 What's wrong with 3NT? I would have preferred to double 1♠ but since I didn't I can only choose NT now. Maybe 4NT or just 6NT is correct? I'm not feeling the slam is on with the interventor behind my 3 aces. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 Implying that 2-4-3-4 would open one heart? Dunno. Am on wrong side of pond.Or 1N weak ? I play a warped form of british acol, and open 1♣/1♥ depending on who I'm playing with if outside the 1N range with that shape. Double is an easy starter here, but I'm wondering if the point of saying "british acol" is 4 card+ club and possibly opened lighter than some people do. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
AlexJonson Posted April 29, 2011 Report Share Posted April 29, 2011 I'm not sure why anyone thinks 2D is systematically GF - didn't he just think with his huge hand and spades that he could go naturally and slowly, only to be disappointed... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted April 30, 2011 Report Share Posted April 30, 2011 I have already screw up by not doubling round before. 2♦ should deny 4 hearts.Now there is no way partner will ever believe I have 4 heart so I just bid 4NT cause it looks like what I have - strong balanced hand with ♠ stopper. If play this as blackwood then it's time to bid 3NT and promptly apologize to partner for not doubling round before and change our agreements regarding 4NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted April 30, 2011 Report Share Posted April 30, 2011 Strongly agree with 2D. Now double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted April 30, 2011 Report Share Posted April 30, 2011 Pard won't have a med hand (he would have acted over 3♠), so he's probably min. I'll go quietly with 3NT then. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mfa1010 Posted April 30, 2011 Report Share Posted April 30, 2011 Double. Can't bring myself to bid just 3NT with this much. If partner takes it out to 4♣/4♦, I would interpret 4NT as RKC, 4♠ as cuebid (last train) and 4♥ as natural trying for a 4-3. So if partner bids 4♣ after the double, we are in trouble. I would try 4♦ after that, atleast if partner does have ♦Kx we should play excellent in diamonds. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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