TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 24, 2011 Report Share Posted April 24, 2011 North Dealer( opps silent )[hv=pc=n&s=skj43hjdakjt52cq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted April 24, 2011 Report Share Posted April 24, 2011 maybe: 1c=1d3s(spl.)=4h(rkc in d)5nt(2 with void)=7d Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted April 24, 2011 Report Share Posted April 24, 2011 mike777's sequence seems perfect - although I don't play kickback, 4NT works just as well here. I'm still not sure how to value cards in the splintered suit on hands like these - KJxx seems an awful waste, but the key point here is that you have a 10 card diamond fit and that means ruffs, ruffs, ruffs. Not to mention the CQ is gonna be a very useful card now that partner opened clubs and showed a strong hand. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 25, 2011 Author Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 As much as I luv splinters, what is the reasoning for opener to NOT rebid 1♥ ? Couldn't Responder have 4 cards Hts too ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 As much as I luv splinters, what is the reasoning for opener to NOT rebid 1♥ ? Couldn't Responder have 4 cards Hts too ? Do you bid up-the-line? Even if partner could have hearts with both opponents silent partner is an overwhelming favourite to have spades. I would be happy to give up on the slim chance of a better heart spot and raise diamonds immediately. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 I like 3S also if playing a style where partner only bids 1D with a 4 card major if he has a GF hand. We are just very likely to have a slam if partner has 4 hearts in that case. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 As the question is "How to get to 7D?" mike777 works.What if the question is 7S? 7H? or 7D? or 7NT? Even avoiding failing grand?The hand fits that bidding because no H:4-4? Or somewhere no H:4-4 was shown? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 25, 2011 Author Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 As much as I luv splinters, what is the reasoning for opener to NOT rebid 1♥ ? Couldn't Responder have 4 cards Hts too ? JLOGIC: "I like 3S also if playing a style where partner only bids 1D with a 4 card major if he has a GF hand. We are just very likely to have a slam if partner has 4 hearts in that case." [hv=pc=n&s=skj4h8543dakjtcq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] North South1C - 1D3S! - ?? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 JLOGIC: "I like 3S also if playing a style where partner only bids 1D with a 4 card major if he has a GF hand. We are just very likely to have a slam if partner has 4 hearts in that case." [hv=pc=n&s=skj4h8543dakjtcq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] North South1C - 1D3S! - ?? Sure this can happen but it is a very unlikely layout. The opponents have ten spades and neither bid. Sure they don't have many points but there are many players who don't let the lack of high cards disrupt them from mentioning the boss suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 This wouldn't happen to me, I only bid 1♦ (or 1♠ transfer in my case) with a 4 card major when I have 2 suiter, With balanced hand start with the major. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
1eyedjack Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 JLOGIC: "I like 3S also if playing a style where partner only bids 1D with a 4 card major if he has a GF hand. We are just very likely to have a slam if partner has 4 hearts in that case." [hv=pc=n&s=skj4h8543dakjtcq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] North South1C - 1D3S! - ?? I think South has an automatic 3N bid in this example. Perhaps the more interesting decision is North's next call? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 I think South has an automatic 3N bid in this example. Perhaps the more interesting decision is North's next call? Sure the ♠KJ suggest NTs however he does have 10 working points when he might have had close to none. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 As much as I luv splinters, what is the reasoning for opener to NOT rebid 1♥ ? Couldn't Responder have 4 cards Hts too ? Pard cannot have 4h or 4s unless they have 5+ d and a game force hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 JLOGIC: "I like 3S also if playing a style where partner only bids 1D with a 4 card major if he has a GF hand. We are just very likely to have a slam if partner has 4 hearts in that case." [hv=pc=n&s=skj4h8543dakjtcq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] North South1C - 1D3S! - ?? again no partner cannot have this hand. also the opp have ten spades and never bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 25, 2011 Author Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 Pard [ Responder ] cannot have 4h or 4s unless they have 5+ d and a game force hand.Am I the only one who will have Responder with 4/4 in the reds and GF values bid ♦ first; whereas, will bid ♥ first with less than GF values -- even with longer ♦ . [hv=pc=n&s=skj4h8543dakjtcq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] The way I see this one:North South1C - 1D1H - 2H ( GF as per MrAce's logic: bids ♦ first with GF 4h/4+d )3S!( splinter ) - 4Hpass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted April 25, 2011 Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 Ya Walsh puts the majors and nt ahead of the minors. And yes that means the diamond suit can get lost or at least makes it more difficult to back into diamonds. As far as your last auction here, ok but it will be a bit more complicated if the opp bid their ten card spade fit. Also on your last auction you never gave pard a chance to support diamonds if you had longer d. It sounds like the south hand is unbalanced when it is very b alanced but if that does not bother you ok. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted April 25, 2011 Author Report Share Posted April 25, 2011 Ya Walsh puts the majors and nt ahead of the minors. And yes that means the diamond suit can get lost or at least makes it more difficult to back into diamonds. As far as your last auction here, ok but it will be a bit more complicated if the opp bid their ten card spade fit. Also on your last auction you never gave pard a chance to support diamonds if you had longer d. It sounds like the south hand is unbalanced when it is very b alanced but if that does not bother you ok.I never mentioned the "W"-word.I guess I play a modified Walsh. Here is a delayed Diam-support auction for the original hand:North Dealer( opps silent )[hv=pc=n&s=skj43hjdakjt52cq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv]North South1C - 1D 1H - 1S! ( must be GF w/ or w/o 4♠ )2D* - 3D ( 5+♦ )3H ( cue ) - 3S ( cue )4C ( cue ) - 4D! ( Minorwood )5D! ( 2 + must be ♠ void ) - 7D ( known 10 card ♦ fit )_____________________________________________________________________________________* 2D = must be 4 cards: either 1 4 4 4 or 0 4 4 5Opener would not bid 2D with only 3 cards ♦ since Responder might have only 4. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bonxie Posted April 26, 2011 Report Share Posted April 26, 2011 It seems clear that an immediate splinter makes things easy but as many others have noted that is resulting of the first order, North cannot rule out hearts, so bidding will always start 1♣ - 1♦1♥ - Also why is everyone assuming North has the ♣K? Would the bidding not be identical if North's hand was [hv=pc=n&n=shakq6dq874cajt98]133|100[/hv] If you ace ask via Minorwood / 4♥ then there is room for a king ask after 5♦but there is no such room over Blackwood. So I like TWO4BRIDGES's auction with the addition of a specific king ask before committing to 7♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 26, 2011 Report Share Posted April 26, 2011 1♣-1♦1♥-3♦ (forcing)4♠-5♦ (Exclusion)7♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted April 26, 2011 Report Share Posted April 26, 2011 JLOGIC: "I like 3S also if playing a style where partner only bids 1D with a 4 card major if he has a GF hand. We are just very likely to have a slam if partner has 4 hearts in that case." [hv=pc=n&s=skj4h8543dakjtcq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] North South1C - 1D3S! - ?? So we get to 6♦ instead of 6♥. Seems a good idea to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted April 30, 2011 Report Share Posted April 30, 2011 Is this the hand that inspired your 1C - 1D - 1H - 1S thread? It is clear that this is more difficult for methods which always bid the major first. My system is not very good at finding diamond slams after a natural club opening but this hand seems simple enough... 1C = 15+ bal/nat or 18+ any... - 1H = 4+ spades, GF2H = 15-17, 5+ clubs, 4 hearts... - 2N = diamond stop, asks for more info3D = patterning out, 3-4 diamonds... - 4D = slam try5H = accept slam try, 2 or 4 keycards with spade void... - 6C = club ask6N = CKJ... - 7D The second hand is tougher and after the start 1C = as above... - 2D = bal or 3-suited, 4-5 hearts, 0-3 spades, GF3H = 15-17, clubs and hearts ...I am locked into hearts and play there rather than 6D. Of course not many opps will have been silent here after a strong club opening! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted May 1, 2011 Report Share Posted May 1, 2011 North Dealer( opps silent )[hv=pc=n&s=skj43hjdakjt52cq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] 1C-1D 15+, GF bal or unbal with 4+ major2H-2S 3-suited short major, asking2N-3C higher short, asking3H-3S 0445, asking3N-7D 10 queen points (A=3, K=2, Q=1), sign off Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
xxhong Posted May 3, 2011 Report Share Posted May 3, 2011 North Dealer( opps silent )[hv=pc=n&s=skj43hjdakjt52cq2&n=shak76d8743cakj93]133|200[/hv] 1C 1D1H(one round forcing) 2D(gf, 5+ D, sign offs and invitational hands go through 1S and 1N)3S(void, 4D, doesn't have to have extra) 3N(sign off)4C(cue, extra) 4D(6+D)4H(cue in H) 4N(even number of KC, SA excluded)5C(CK) 6C(CQ)7D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phil_20686 Posted May 7, 2011 Report Share Posted May 7, 2011 I think rebidding one heart over one diamond if you play walsh style is serious error. Partner can only have 4 hearts if he has GF values, and (for me) he will then have longer diamonds. (With GF 4-4 i bid hearts then NT/checkback-ish sequences). If partner has GF vlaues in a 9 card diamond fit then it seems normal to continue with a splinter. I am pretty surprised at the number of people who think the auction will start 1c-1d-1h. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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