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Responding to 1 Club open with very weak hand


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I haven't been playing very long and we play a system based largely on SAYC as that is the system my more experienced regular partner was already playing when I met him (apparently we don't say its SAYC on our CC as we would have to play it by the book?). I am sure that this situation isn't unique but I can't find anything about it in the forum. It occurred last night at my club when playing with a new partner who was familiar with our system as she had played with my regular partner a few times,

 

As dealer I picked up my cards and had:

AKQx

QJx

Tx

Jxx

 

Red Vs white I didn't like the look and feel of it for some reason. The bidding went:

1,P,1,p

2, all pass

 

Partner made 5 tricks and it turned she had something like:

 

Txxx

xxxx

Jxx

xx

 

As she said during the break, she didn't feel she could leave me in 1and I tend to agree with her as in this case its likely we would have been lucky to make 2 tricks. Indeed I have raised this a few time with my regular partner as I believe a 1should be at least forcing for 1 round but he isn't sure.

 

What is the current thinking about this rare dilemma?

 

It was a Pairs even and as it is in UK our opponents were playing Acol.

 

PS RHO confirmed that he would have left me in 1as he was sat with 5 to the AKQ

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What's the problem of going down in 2? Opps are cold for 3NT. Same thing for 1 being left in.

 

Anyway, back to the main point: if you can't stand leaving 1 in, you might as well play a polish-style 1 and do something useful with the 2 opening.

 

In other words: with less than 5 hcp you just pass 1, period. The exception is you having a decent 6-card suit playing weak jump shifts.

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The system doesn't really cater to responses lighter than about 5 HCPs. This is because opener will rebid 2NT with 18 points and if responder has less than about 5 HCPs, 2NT will often go down while 1 would have made. Also, the rebid of 3 with 15-17 points and a 6-card club suit may work badly when responder is very weak.

 

Worse, it might go

1-(p)-1-(3)

3NT-(dbl)

 

You can take a view and respond with a very weak hand, gambling that it turns out well, but you have to take responsibility when opener makes a normal rebid and you get too high.

 

With the actual hand, pass is very clear. A 2NT rebid would be disastrous and besides, if opener raises to 4 it is unlikely to make. You should only make a weak response when there is at least a reasonable chance of making game opposite a maximum with 4-card support.

 

BTW, with 4-4 in the majors the correct response is 1. Why did he bid 1? Because his spade suit was better? That's a very poor reason.

 

If you want to play 1 as forcing you will need some artificial responses, allowing opener to rebid 1NT with 18-19 so that you avoid the 2NT rebid. But then you need to do something else with 12-14 points. A popular method in Netherlands and Poland is that responder bids 1 with a very weak hand, and opener now rebids a 3-card major with 12-14 balanced. This gets complicated though, and depending of where you live you may also run into system regulations issues. So I don't really recommend it.

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Thanks everyone for the prompt and very helpful responses.

 

I hadn't thought about the 2NT bid from opener with 18pts if responding light. But even if he did that would be 21pts, inside the 2NT opening so I suppose that could be safe-ish.

 

The Polish style looks a bit complicated. We already have a number of conventions that we haven't used enough times to iron out the problems, so I don't want to suggest adding to that problem.

 

On balance I think we'll stick to where we are and take a risk with the very rare occasions when we might end up going down a lot in 1.

 

Once again, many thanks everyone.

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