I like lies

[kayin801]

[hv=pc=n&s=sk96hak752dt8cq42&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=1d1hp1s(Forcing)p]200|300[/hv]

 

IMPs

 

(Edited to add 2nd poll question)

[Yu18772]

2♠, but judging by the title you prefer something else?

[JLOGIC]

2S of course, I don't understand this problem.

[Cyberyeti]

If this is an ace and a bit more than you habitually overcall on then 2♦, but for most of us 2♠ is completely routine.

[paulg]

2S of course, I don't understand this problem.

I'm guessing North tanked, looked uncomfortable, pulled the pass card out three times, then bid 1♠ .... and South passed it.

[kayin801]

I dunno, I have a compulsive aversion to directly raising possible 4 card suits with 3 card support and a balanced(ish) hand. I guess the fact that there's no great alternative makes it necessary here though?

 

On a side note, make a small spade a small diamond and what do you bid? I've edited the poll to ask this question too.

[1eyedjack]

On a side note, make a small spade a small diamond and what do you bid?

Then I would go for 1N. Some may object on the grounds of inadequate Diamond guard, but I think that nowadays that is not a requirement.

(1) Responder had an opportunity to raise diamonds, which he has not taken

(2) Opener had an opportunity to repeat his diamonds, which he has not taken

(3) We are only at the 1 level. Let them cash their diamonds on which we discard losers and we may well have the remaining 7.

 

I speculate that 1N is included in the poll on the same grounds, coupled with the possibility that 1S advance may be on a 4 card suit. I don't think that would pursuade me to bid 1N on the OP poll, however.

[jh51]

I dunno, I have a compulsive aversion to directly raising possible 4 card suits with 3 card support and a balanced(ish) hand. I guess the fact that there's no great alternative makes it necessary here though?

 

If you are playing negative doubles, 1♠ in this sequence usually promises 5+, and X promises exactly 4. If this is the case, you should not have your aversion, as partner has 5+ spades.

[aguahombre]

If you are playing negative doubles, 1♠ in this sequence usually promises 5+, and X promises exactly 4. If this is the case, you should not have your aversion, as partner has 5+ spades.

A reread of the auction might be in order.

[Phil]

2♠ - I've switched to NF in these auctions (and use a jump shift for 13-15 hands), which makes things easier.

 

If I have to raise on Kxx AJTxx xx xxx, as well as the actual hand, things get awkward.

[JLOGIC]

I dunno, I have a compulsive aversion to directly raising possible 4 card suits with 3 card support and a balanced(ish) hand. I guess the fact that there's no great alternative makes it necessary here though?

 

On a side note, make a small spade a small diamond and what do you bid? I've edited the poll to ask this question too.

 

Don't bid 1S with 4 then. 1S is almost always 5 here.

[gnasher]

2♠ - I've switched to NF in these auctions (and use a jump shift for 13-15 hands), which makes things easier.

 

If I have to raise on Kxx AJTxx xx xxx, as well as the actual hand, things get awkward.

 

But wouldn't you *want* to raise on Kxx AJTxx xx xxx? If you pass, RHO will probably bid something, then you'll bid 2♠ anyway, and they may compete to three of a minor. If you bid 2♠ immediately you will probably buy it.

[gnasher]

Wouldn't 2♦ show, or include, a good raise? If so, that's probably the right call, so that we can distinguish between an opening hand like this and the tat that we might have had.

[AlexJonson]

Bid 2S on both, Kxx is good, Kx has its advantages.

[nige1]

[hv=pc=n&s=sk96hak752dt8cq42&d=e&v=b&b=10&a=1d1hp1s(Forcing)p]200|300|

IMO

 

2♠ = 10, 2♦ = 9, 2♣ = 6, 1N = 2

(Even if 2♠ is a 4-3 fit, it should play well)

 

With a spade transformed to a diamond:

2♣ = 10, 2♦ = 7, 2♥ = 6, 1N = 4, 2♠ = 2[/hv]

[Cascade]

2♠ - I've switched to NF in these auctions (and use a jump shift for 13-15 hands), which makes things easier.

 

I am guessing you don't do this with four spades or do you?

[Cascade]

Don't bid 1S with 4 then. 1S is almost always 5 here.

 

Someone has to bid them otherwise you miss your four-four fit.

 

What exactly does almost always mean?

[ArtK78]

I bid 2♠ with the first hand. Can't imagine why I would choose any other call.

 

Changing a small spade to a small diamond, I bid 1NT. Notwithstanding nige1's preference for 2♣, I think that 1NT is automatic. After all, how else can you play in 1NT?

[JLOGIC]

Someone has to bid them otherwise you miss your four-four fit.

 

What exactly does almost always mean?

 

God not another thread on this again!

 

Almost means if I was ever dealt AKQx xx xx xxxxx I'm sure I would bid 1S and treat them as 5. I did not want to say "1S is always 5" since I'm sure you would say "ALWAYS?!?!"

[bluecalm]

I dunno, I have a compulsive aversion to directly raising possible 4 card suits with 3 card support

 

I am the same but this hand calls for 2♠. I also think 1♠ should be NF but I would raise anyway playing that way.

[Cascade]

God not another thread on this again!

 

Almost means if I was ever dealt AKQx xx xx xxxxx I'm sure I would bid 1S and treat them as 5. I did not want to say "1S is always 5" since I'm sure you would say "ALWAYS?!?!"

 

I was interested in where your boundary was not trying to be picky about your language.

[kgr]

Wouldn't 2♦ show, or include, a good raise? If so, that's probably the right call, so that we can distinguish between an opening hand like this and the tat that we might have had.

My thoughts..I voted 2♦

[mcphee]

Gee, I would not consider anything other than 2S. When lacking the 3rd S this becomes awkward. Balanced I am, but if NT is the place to be partner will need to bid it. I would try 2C maybe even worse than 1NT, but I like NT here to contain D feature. The 3 little D make the hand far less appealing to me.

[Siegmund]

Nice advertisement for playing 1S NF IMO.

[Free]

2♠ is really obvious, for me 1♠ is worth a 5 card suit (so exceptionally a good 4 card is allowed).

 

With a ♠ less I think I'd rebid 2♣. I don't like to bid 1NT without a (semi)stopper, so 2♣ is pretty much all that's left.

 

I don't understand why anyone would like to play 1♠ as NF.