jetkro Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 The scoring was IMP's and no one was vulnerable. Dealer East. East: 2S ( weak )South: 3HWest : 3SNorth: 4H East : 4S I would like to know if the N/S players are now in a forcing pass auction. An additional question: What would it mean if North had bid 4D instead of 4H?Natural or fit showing non jump? Thanks,Jetkro. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 Not in a FP auction with my partner.4D by an unpassed hand is natural with my Pd. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helium Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 Hi, yes i whould say they are, if south pass he shows good cards and encour to bid 5 ♥ rateher than dubble:) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 The only time this may be a forcing pass situation is when NS are vulnerable and EW are non-vul (I call this Red but also known as Red vs Green). I play 4♦ is natural. p Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 "Hi, yes i whould say they are, if south pass he shows good cards and encour to bid 5 ♥ rateher than dubble:) " He he. This is known as the -590 vs -420 syndrome. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 I would say you are in a FP situations, since North bid out of free will. East bid again :huh: after his weak opening :blink: so he's clearly a beginner and need to learn not to do this B) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jetkro Posted September 12, 2004 Author Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 It is not clear to me why this is not a FP auction. 1. Surely north bid 4H to make; not as a sacrifice? However it was bid under pressure and could be wide ranging.2. East's unusual 4S bid is undoubtedly a sacrifice. Did he discover a 7th spade? Are the conditions not right for FP to apply? jetkro Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 I would say you are in a FP situations, since North bid out of free will. East bid again :huh: after his weak opening :blink: so he's clearly a beginner and need to learn not to do this B) How do you know what the lesson he needs to learn is? Maybe he needs to learn to pre-empt to the limit of his hand the first time, and this contract is actually making. IMO This isn't a FP situation. You don't know whether partner really expected to make 4♥. 4D would be natural. Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skorchev Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 The only time this may be a forcing pass situation is when NS are vulnerable and EW are non-vul (I call this Red but also known as Red vs Green). I play 4♦ is natural. p This one looks right for me. Stefan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 1 opponent has a weak 2, and the other a compettive 3 raise, the opener decided to bid 4 when wasn´t asked to... so this is in FACT a forcing situation because the opponents do not think they will make their contract at all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 3H has to be a very strong bid.. in my opinion this is a forcing pass auction... had partner bid 4D, i'd have taken that as a fnj and then it would have definitely been fp 4H may or may not have been making (i think it was), but not doubling here is almost criminal Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Flame Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 Imo the pass is forcing, mainly because of west's 3sp bid which is the bst indicate that the opponents are weak here.About the 4d, its a FNJ bid (not natural). The meaning of this FNJ is probebly having a real diamond suit and not just for the lead, but im not sure about it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted September 12, 2004 Report Share Posted September 12, 2004 I have a suspicion that the 3S bidder has the strongest hand at the table. I don't think that 3H or 4H promises a full opening count, so there is no forcing pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulhar Posted September 16, 2004 Report Share Posted September 16, 2004 I think you'll want the forcing pass more often than you don't in this situation. Yes, sometimes you'll go -590 against -420, but in more cases IMO, the overcaller will want to bid or double and will be happy to let partner decide. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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