bluecalm Posted April 5, 2011 Report Share Posted April 5, 2011 1.1♣ 4♥ pass ? is it forcing ? 2.1♣ 2♥ pass 5♥pass = is it forcing ? Let's say you play pass/double inversion so doubles would be t/o in both cases regardless if pass is forcing or not but is it forcing ? Any general rules for those situations ?I saw in old Meckwell cc that pass is forcing after 4♣ and higher overcall but it seems risky to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted April 5, 2011 Report Share Posted April 5, 2011 My general rule is that if one partner could have a zero-count, then pass cannot be forcing. That applies in both of these auctions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bluecalm Posted April 5, 2011 Author Report Share Posted April 5, 2011 That applies in both of these auctions. Even: 1♣ - 5♦ - pass would be not forcing then ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted April 5, 2011 Report Share Posted April 5, 2011 I play forcing pass ON below 2S - 16+ must have a partial.And above 3S - 16+ must have 4+DT.Neither assertion is guaranteed, but it puts a schedule of responsibilities for the rest of the auctions.Especially, did not use forcing pass why? Good suit? Good shape? Good honors? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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