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IMPS. Partner opens 1C, you bid 3NT ending the auction.

 

 

LHO leads the spade 6 (playing 4th best leads).

 

Plan the play in the following two cases:

 

 

1)

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sathq53da742cqj52&n=sq43hakt7d63cat98]133|200[/hv]

 

2)

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sathq53da742cqj52&n=sq432hak7d63cat98]133|200[/hv]

 

 

As usual Adv/+ please refrain from spoiling too early. Please do comment if there is something I missed and this is not B/I.

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1. 9 tricks: 2 spades (presuming LHO led from either the king or jack), 3 hearts, 1 diamond, 3 clubs.

Danger is that when the club finesse loses, instead of playing another spade as we would like, RHO will play a diamond, then the second spade trick isn't set up yet, and when we try to set it up they will cash too many diamonds.

 

So instead of winning the jack or king and playing a club, play a spade. Then they will probably clear the suit, but then when the club finesse loses, if RHO has another spade, that means that they are 4-4 and they can only take two spades and a club, and maybe a heart at the end.

 

If LHO led from three to the king or jack, RHO might be able to cash some spades but not enough to set us (he can't play both a spade AND a diamond when he wins the spade!). He will take three spades and a club.

 

Can't cash hearts first, or else in the above instance he might be able to cash two spades and a heart, plus the spade we gave him, plus the club, for a set.

 

2. Again the same 9 tricks. Nothing different to the first hand except that there isn't a possibility of a tenth trick (a heart)? Did I miss something? It is IMPS so we're not trying to figure out a way to get a tenth trick are we?

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It is IMPS so we're not trying to figure out a way to get a tenth trick are we?

Thats what I'd assume.

 

Obviously the T won't win the trick, that would be too easy. If E plays the J we do have a -stopper left, if we play as suggested, W may win the K and still play ....

 

So what if say E plays the J and we duck with the T, maybe he continues , we win with the Ace and play on clubs.

 

IN the first hand we can also choose to bet on the 32% of being 3/3 plus the -finesse instead of relying on E not switching to ....

 

Peter

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On first one I let the spade run to my ten and take the club finesse. If this loses they must shift to diamonds but I still have good chances of getting 9th trick in hearts. Playing the Q could go terribly wrong if the lead was from J sixth.

 

On the second one I don't have tricks to do any fancy safety plays. My 9th trick must be the spade Q when the club finesse fails.

 

You could also be bold and assume the leader doesn't have 4 (some restricted choice might suggest this) and spade honors are split. Then you could let the first trick run to honor and ace, take the club finesse, duck two diamonds and now play a spade. This is an automatic extra chance in first when the leader holds Hxxx(x) xx xxx xxx(x)

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So what if say E plays the J and we duck with the T, maybe he continues , we win with the Ace and play on clubs.

 

IN the first hand we can also choose to bet on the 32% of being 3/3 plus the -finesse instead of relying on E not switching to ....

 

Ducking the spade gives up a trick, and gives East a chance to switch to a worse suit, diamonds. It also means that when the club finesse loses, East can put his partner in with a diamond, and if West led from 3 small spades, you'll go heaps off (spade goes through your queen).

 

There is an age-old rule: when there is a worse suit than the one lead to the first trick, don't duck, cause they will probably switch.

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On first one I let the spade run to my ten and take the club finesse. If this loses they must shift to diamonds but I still have good chances of getting 9th trick in hearts. Playing the Q could go terribly wrong if the lead was from J sixth.

 

On the second one I don't have tricks to do any fancy safety plays. My 9th trick must be the spade Q when the club finesse fails.

 

Agree on 1.

 

On 2, you'd better take the spade finesse before the club one.

 

 

Sorry, this problem was a bit more open ended...

 

I was wondering if playing the SQ in hand 2 at trick 1 could be one of the reasonable lines.

 

I don't see why not.

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Sorry, this problem was a bit more open ended...

 

I was wondering if playing the SQ in hand 2 at trick 1 could be one of the reasonable lines.

Is it the better line?:

It is better if LHO has:

- K and not J

- 4+c

- RHO finds a switch when winning CK

It is worse if RHO has:

- K

I'm not sure what is most likely. I think I would play both hands the same.

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Is it the better line?:

It is better if LHO has:

- K and not J

- 4+c

- RHO finds a switch when winning CK

It is worse if RHO has:

- K

I'm not sure what is most likely. I think I would play both hands the same.

 

Yeah, no clue.

 

Of course, on the hand which prompted me to post this didn't have the ST, making the Q a clear play in hand 2.

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playing the queen is a horrible mistake, it goes down with the K onside.

 

It only wins when LHO has K and RHO J, wich is as likelly as LHO having J and RHO having K where it fails miserably on a situation where you have 2 inmediate tricks playing low.

 

 

To simplify the things, if we changed A with K assuming we must lose a trick there, playing the queen is still wrong. You have the same chances (barring underleading kings and jacks tendencies) of making 2 quick tricks by playing the queen or low, but by playing low you have another extra chance: a bad switch by the opponents after they win A. 50%+ something is always better than 50%+nothing

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