JLOGIC Posted March 28, 2011 Report Share Posted March 28, 2011 ??? Why is this different than a forcing NT, or a non forcing NT? edit: Also, Phil, I think nige1 was just making fun of waterhombre saying that you don't play 2/1 if you don't play forcing NT rather than trying to misquote you. In the context of that point, I don't think you were misquoted by him. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted March 28, 2011 Report Share Posted March 28, 2011 Heh; maybe opening 1M with 15-17 isn't such a travesty. We might get out to a far superior partial if partner passes 2m (when opener is 5M332) with a 7 count and 5 card support. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted March 28, 2011 Report Share Posted March 28, 2011 Y'all can have fun with your rebid problems. Oh, and by the way, what do you use 1N-3♣ as, and when was the last time you used it? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted March 29, 2011 Report Share Posted March 29, 2011 Y'all can have fun with your rebid problems. Oh, and by the way, what do you use 1N-3♣ as, and when was the last time you used it?Some of us don't like bidding Stayman with balanced invite and no major. So, for example, 2♠ either balanced invite or minor signoff, 2NT clubs invit or better, 3♣ diamonds invit or better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 29, 2011 Report Share Posted March 29, 2011 puppet enroute to 3nt...and very often, adam. And even more often than that, since if I don't, and bid 3NT directly, pard should worry about her major stoppers Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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