MarkG_VA Posted March 19, 2011 Report Share Posted March 19, 2011 GiB seems to routinely rebid 5 card majors over opener's 1N rebid. We are not talking KQJTx here either.Why does GiB risk a 5-2 or 5-1 fit(when GiB has ♠, as opener could be 1=4=4=4) and being a levelhigher on minimum hands instead of just passing 1N? Here's a case in point from a recenttourney: http://www.bridgebase.com/tools/handviewer.html?myhand=M-13781770-1300567501 Here's one where GiB bids the same off a maximum, when it should have bid NMF: http://www.bridgebase.com/tools/handviewer.html?myhand=M-11456501-1300163401 This "bug" needs to be fixed ... !!! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
palabreur Posted March 19, 2011 Report Share Posted March 19, 2011 This "bug" needs to be fixed ... !!! What style of game are you playing? If matchpoints, 2M looks like a decent shot at the top spot. If robot race/reward... well, it shouldn't be that, since you oughtn't to be opening your hands. Can't be bingo either, since the 1NT rebid would be awful (just pass 1M if you want a one-level contract). So you must be playing matchpoints, in which case... I think 2M was a shot at the best contract in each case. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bbradley62 Posted March 19, 2011 Report Share Posted March 19, 2011 Why does GiB risk a 5-2 or 5-1 fit(when GiB has ♠, as opener could be 1=4=4=4) and being a levelhigher on minimum hands instead of just passing 1N?Just to clarify... as you can see from the explanation provided, in GIB's system your 1NT rebid shows at least two of each suit. With 1444, you'd open 1♦ and rebid 2♣ over 1♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted March 20, 2011 Report Share Posted March 20, 2011 GiB seems to routinely rebid 5 card majors over opener's 1N rebid. We are not talking KQJTx here either.Why does GiB risk a 5-2 or 5-1 fit(when GiB has ♠, as opener could be 1=4=4=4) and being a levelhigher on minimum hands instead of just passing 1N? Here's a case in point from a recenttourney: http://www.bridgebase.com/tools/handviewer.html?myhand=M-13781770-1300567501 Here's one where GiB bids the same off a maximum, when it should have bid NMF: http://www.bridgebase.com/tools/handviewer.html?myhand=M-11456501-1300163401 This "bug" needs to be fixed ... !!! Do you transfer over a 1NT opening with a 5 card Major, or do you pass? Not that much difference is there? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MarkG_VA Posted March 20, 2011 Author Report Share Posted March 20, 2011 Do you transfer over a 1NT opening with a 5 card Major, or do you pass? Not that much difference is there? The analogy is valid only up to a point. Do you transfer over 1N opening and then pass when you are invitational?That is what GiB did on the second hand by NOT bidding NMF to show his nice 11. The situation is fundamentally different in another way. When the auction begins 1m-1M-1N, much more is known aboutthe hands, and how they fit together. We're not talking 15-17 opposite next to nothing transfer here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MarkG_VA Posted March 20, 2011 Author Report Share Posted March 20, 2011 Just to clarify... as you can see from the explanation provided, in GIB's system your 1NT rebid shows at least two of each suit. With 1444, you'd open 1♦ and rebid 2♣ over 1♠. I stand corrected on this point, thank you. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted March 20, 2011 Report Share Posted March 20, 2011 The analogy is valid only up to a point. Do you transfer over 1N opening and then pass when you are invitational?That is what GiB did on the second hand by NOT bidding NMF to show his nice 11. The situation is fundamentally different in another way. When the auction begins 1m-1M-1N, much more is known aboutthe hands, and how they fit together. We're not talking 15-17 opposite next to nothing transfer here. Not really. Playing SAYC or 2/1 all you know is that opener has at least 3 of the m and a balanced hand in the 11-14 range - and that's it. Passing as responder with an 11 count is not unreasonable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted March 20, 2011 Report Share Posted March 20, 2011 Everyone I know would invite with 11 HCP and a 5-card suit. Sometimes you end up in thin games, so what? Maybe the bot knows how bad a declarer he is. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MarkG_VA Posted March 21, 2011 Author Report Share Posted March 21, 2011 Everyone I know would invite with 11 HCP and a 5-card suit. Sometimes you end up in thin games, so what? Maybe the bot knows how bad a declarer he is. :) My point exactly. And thanks for that ... your name has now been black balled :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bbradley62 Posted March 21, 2011 Report Share Posted March 21, 2011 GiB seems to routinely rebid 5 card majors over opener's 1N rebid. We are not talking KQJTx here either. Why does GiB risk a 5-2 or 5-1 fit(when GiB has ♠, as opener could be 1=4=4=4) and being a level higher on minimum hands instead of just passing 1N?<<snip>>Here's one where GiB bids the same off a maximum, when it should have bid NMF:<<snip>>So, you are saying that North has a clear pass on Board 9, but a clear NMF call on Board 5, when North has 11HCP and a crummy 5-card major in both? I don't think GIB can be expected to make such a clear distinction between the two hands. This "bug" needs to be fixed ... !!!Even if we agree with your bidding preferences, and it's not clear that anyone does, this is a gross overstatement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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