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Have your cake and eat it too?


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MP, all V

 

P (1) to you

 

AK965, K3, A73, QJ8

 

If you bid 1N (or tell me why 1 is better) and the auction continues..

 

P (1) 1N (2*) *transfer

P (2) ?

 

Will you bid 2 now?

 

Depends on the system you agreed with P.

 

 

 

Playing SAYC, this hand is a little too strong for an overcall of 1. I would prefer to overcall 1NT, which I think superior to the double, because it better discribes the hand. Besides, this is a hand on which I would open 1NT, to avoid the rebid problem after a 1 opening.

 

Playing BWS2001: you can bid 1, because partner knows you can have up to 18H.

 

 

 

On the proposed bidding sequence, I must pass, partner can have 5 litlle and nothing else. In that case it is clear that the opener has all the rest, which could justify his reverse bidding: or is it just a strength showinw cue-bid ? I would only consider a double with 3 with 2 tophonners.

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Oh, got this wrong, the opps are bidding 2, NOT my P.

 

2 is a little agressive, but it is kind of a pre-balance. It depends also on your agreements of the actions partner could have taken on the 2 transfer.

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I'm one of those unimaginative types who thinks hat with a good five card spade suit you should overcall 1. Maybe we buy the hand in spades, maybe the opponents buy the hand and partner leads a spade. OK either way.

 

If I overcall 1NT then I find it very easy to bid 2S here. If it goes for a number that's just too bad. I have a good hand and good spades. I am not passing.

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I would pass now at R/R and that is why I would have bid 1 before because I wouldn't dare to introduce my spades later if I start with 1NT.

 

Being nonvul I might have bid 1NT. It does get my values across, after all, which I might not achieve if I start with 1.

 

Something else: it is unusual to play transfers in this situation. If I am not confident that opps know what they are doing then that's an extra reason for passing.

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It just seems to work much better to overcall 1M as opposed to 1NT when you are 5332. The reason is, I guess, that you don't wish or hope to show exact point ranges in competitive auctions anymore, and the risk of missing game because of this is lower. Getting to a workable partscore is more important, and for that, telling partner that you have a 5 card major is more important than telling him your points.

 

As an aside, all the role models here on the forums seem to agree with this (not my half-baked reasoning, but the tendency to overcall 1M and not 1NT).

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Although for the sake of competition bidding spades is better than NT (especdially after they opened the bidding and partner already passed) I believe we can safely bid 2 now. The only problem I see is that partner holds the hearts and is waitong for the bid to come to him and double, but other than that 2 seems automatic here.
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Thanks all. I thought it was better to show my point count first but I see getting to the better part score is more important. However if partner was an UPH, is it still better to overcall a 5cM?

 

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sqj4haq42dj5ckt32&w=sak965hk3da73cqj8&n=s3hjt85dqt9864ca9&e=st872h976dk2c7654&d=e&v=b&b=13&a=p1c1n2dp2h2s3hppp]399|300[/hv]

 

Hi Helene, transfers are used after 1m (1N) by a few players in this part of the world, they weren't bunnies. :)

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Thanks all. I thought it was better to show my point count first but I see getting to the better part score is more important. However if partner was an UPH, is it still better to overcall a 5cM?

Not in my (or the aforementioned role models') opinion.

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I would not overcall 1NT on this hand regardless of whether partner has passed already. Opening 1NT on this hand is a different story. There are several reasons:

 

(1) You are less likely to have game on power after the opponents have opened. Of course it is still possible to have 25-26 hcp or whatever, but by far the majority of your games will be based on a major suit fit. For this reason showing your spades (hoping to catch a raise) is likely better than bidding notrump to show the point count.

 

(2) A competitive auction is more likely once the opponents have opened. LHO will bid pretty aggressively if he has a suit (or a club raise) because he knows his partner has some stuff. For this reason it is helpful to show your suit right away, so partner can compete further and you are not left guessing whether to introduce spades at the two-level. 1NT is also a lot easier to penalize than 1 in case partner shows up with a yarboro.

 

(3) The 1NT opening has the effect of "siding" most contracts to you (i.e. you will declare notrump, you will declare a heart contract after a transfer). When the opponents values are mostly going to be in one hand (opener's) you often want that person to be on lead. This means some contracts tend to play better from partner's side even though you have more values.

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Thanks all. I thought it was better to show my point count first but I see getting to the better part score is more important. However if partner was an UPH, is it still better to overcall a 5cM?

 

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sqj4haq42dj5ckt32&w=sak965hk3da73cqj8&n=s3hjt85dqt9864ca9&e=st872h976dk2c7654&d=e&v=b&b=13&a=p1c1n2dp2h2s3hppp]399|300[/hv]

 

Hi Helene, transfers are used after 1m (1N) by a few players in this part of the world, they weren't bunnies. :)

 

 

If they transfer on four cards to the Jack, even if it includes the Ten, they are definitely something!

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I like 1nt followed by 2, it's only matchpoints.

 

On these cards, if I overcall 1 my partner is putting me in 3 at their next bid, down on a club ruff. With the 1nt overcall first, they MAY decide to defend at the 3 level.

 

Doesn't work out here but that's just hindsight. Pard can decide to bid 3 spades, get doubled and go for -200 or take a stand on defence with the max info I'm able to provide and I would be happy to get this one right more than 50% of the time

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Thanks all. I thought it was better to show my point count first but I see getting to the better part score is more important. However if partner was an UPH, is it still better to overcall a 5cM?

 

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sqj4haq42dj5ckt32&w=sak965hk3da73cqj8&n=s3hjt85dqt9864ca9&e=st872h976dk2c7654&d=e&v=b&b=13&a=p1c1n2dp2h2s3hppp]399|300[/hv]

 

Hi Helene, transfers are used after 1m (1N) by a few players in this part of the world, they weren't bunnies. :)

 

 

even vulnerable, as E, I would bid 3 now. We have a 9card fit.... It is taking insurance.....

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It's difficult to assert what these non-bunnies thought about 2. North definitely forgot. But then isn't 1-1NT-2-p; 2 a reverse? So North should bid game with his wonderful 7 count. If North didn't forget, then he is competing 3/2 in a possible 4-2 fit.

 

What about South? He has 4 card support but a very bad spade holding. So he doesn't appear to have a superaccept. And of course he didn't promise a balanced hand so probably no weak NT should superaccept. Only if you have a singleton and a non-minimum. So South bid well, if indeed they play transfers!

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i guess that it's an interesting hand. Playing W, with my clone sitting E, I would overcall 1{Sp] (so I said before the hands were shown), I presume there would be a negative X, and my cone would, I think, settle for 2. Easy to say after seeing the hands of course, but I generally am wary of the pre-emptive jump to 3 on little else beyond the presumed nine card fit. I suppose 3 by S would be the final contract.

 

Switching me and my clone around to the NS seats, suppose it goes 1-1-X-3. Do I, at mps, hit this? Probably I don't, call me chicken. Do we beat it two tricks? Down 1 seems easy, down 2 seems highly obscure (Edit: OK, while chopping berries for a cake I worked it out, maybe it even happens). So if EW get to play 3 against me and my clone, it's likely down 1, undoubled by may chicken-hearted soul.

 

I suppose, since the hand barely makes 2 when partner supplies four spades and the king of diamonds I might consider rethinking my earlier comment that if I had overcalled 1NT (I wouldn't) then I would bid 2 at my next turn. But I am a slow learner so I am not yet ready to change my view.

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It's difficult to assert what these non-bunnies thought about 2. North definitely forgot. But then isn't 1-1NT-2-p; 2 a reverse? So North should bid game with his wonderful 7 count. If North didn't forget, then he is competing 3/2 in a possible 4-2 fit.

 

What about South? He has 4 card support but a very bad spade holding. So he doesn't appear to have a superaccept. And of course he didn't promise a balanced hand so probably no weak NT should superaccept. Only if you have a singleton and a non-minimum. So South bid well, if indeed they play transfers!

 

Upon reflection I think that, maybe anyway, the alerted 2 was just badly explained. It's not a transfer in the sense of strongly requesting partner to bid 2 but rather a way of showing four hearts. Using language this way, a negative double, as in 1-(1)-X could be called a transfer bid since it shows four hearts without bidding hearts. I think I would be a little ticked if my lho bid 2, my rho explained it as a transfered to hearts, and my lho showed up with six diamonds and four hearts, but maybe it's a local dialect.

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Insurance against what? 3H? Spare me!

3S is at least 1 off and probably 2.

 

 

Indeed difficult to judge...

But this is MP: 3= will not be a good score for us. I do not think that they can double 3.

 

and indeed in IMPS, vul, I might not bid 3.

 

Could you be little bit more explicit on your answer ? and explain when to bid or not ?

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