AlexJonson Posted June 21, 2011 Report Share Posted June 21, 2011 I think the only reason this thread is still alive is that there must be some quirk in the Icelandic language which causes Math609 to think that the English sentences "explain your partnership agreements" and "tell the opponents what's in your hand" are semantically equivalent. Let's not go too far. This kind of situation is difficult. Math has some arguments. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Math609 Posted June 22, 2011 Report Share Posted June 22, 2011 I think the only reason this thread is still alive is that there must be some quirk in the Icelandic language which causes Math609 to think that the English sentences "explain your partnership agreements" and "tell the opponents what's in your hand" are semantically equivalent.Probably mgoetze got a brick in his head. Now he thinks we are dealing with a language problem :wacko: But before that he expressed his opinion on Nige1 (#171):“Maybe I'm not the only one who has nige1's posts filtered out by default”. ...and on Vampyr (#198):“My opinion of you was elevated for about 10 seconds! (The time between seeing that you had upvoted bluejak's post, which seemed like a classy action, and reading your retraction...)” And by the way, is this a “deviation” from a intellectual discussion? <_< Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted June 22, 2011 Report Share Posted June 22, 2011 Insulting people on the other side of an issue makes one's argument stronger, doesn't it? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted July 7, 2011 Report Share Posted July 7, 2011 Interesting piece in http://www.eurobridge.org/departments/directing/2010Course/WBF%20Laws%20Committee.pdf which has some bearing on the discussion at hand Here is an article written by Edgar Kaplan in 1981-1983: East, dealer, opens 1♥, South passes, West raises to 2♥, and North overcalls 2NTwith 5-5 in the minors; East passes, and South replies 3♣ holding 6 points with jackthirdof clubs. Now West asks South whether North’s 2NT bid was natural, or unusual. Southanswers, ‘this is the first time we’ve played – we have no agreement’. Obviously,though, South has interpreted the bid as unusual; has he given misinformation?That depends on how South figured out what North’s bid meant. Case 1South has no clue; he simply flipped a mental coin and guessed right. No infraction:E-W are not entitled to learn what South’s guess is Case 2South decided to treat the overcall as unusual because he judged that most playersuse it that way. Also, partner was unlikely to be very strong, since this East neverpsyches, and West, a Roth-Stoner by early training, always has sound values for araise. No infraction: E-W have no claim to share South’s general bridge knowledge,or to learn what inferences South has drawn from their bidding habits. Case 3South presumed that 2NT was for minors because he himself held king-jack fifth inhearts. No infraction: deductions South draws from his own cards are his own affairs. Case 4South judged that 2NT was for minors because he had often played with North’sregular partner, who treated most no trump overcalls as unusual. Misinformation:South had particular knowledge relating to his partner, knowledge the opponentswere entitled to share. Case 5South figured out that the overcall was unusual from the fact that North had used anambiguous no trump bid earlier in the session, intending it as take out for minors.Misinformation: South’s experience with partner’s bidding habits crated an implicitagreements; it was the opponent’s rights to know of it. The Committee considered situations where an obscure call is made and the partnerinforms opponent that his side has no agreement concerning it. It was noted thatneither the WBF in its code of practice, nor the ACBL, recognizes ‘convention disruption’as an infraction in itself. The Chief Director referred to the requirement for theresponder to give full information, including agreements relating to relevant alternativecalls. The Committee observed that the Director in forming an opinion as to theexistence of a partnership understanding should take into account subsequent actionin the auction. In relation to Laws 75C and 75D the Director is required to determinewhat agreements the partnership has. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted July 7, 2011 Report Share Posted July 7, 2011 Case five seems to imply that one swallow does indeed make a summer, which is contrary to my understanding of the correct interpretation of this part of the laws*. Perhaps the facts of this particular case make it an exception? *I mean that my understanding is that one instance of such a bid (2NT not agreed as unusual, but intended as such) does not establish an implicit agreement; there has to be some frequency of the particular "forget". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alphatango Posted July 8, 2011 Report Share Posted July 8, 2011 I think there is a significant difference between: Situation A: There is a prior agreement (explicit or implicit), which is violated, andSituation B: There is no prior agreement, and a player nevertheless uses that call (hoping that partner will be on the same wavelength from general bridge knowledge, or that he will be able to clarify his hand later in the auction). For example: If I agree a 12-14 NT with partner and open a 16 HCP 1NT, that is situation A -- I haven't (necessarily) established a new implicit agreement by violating my previous agreement. But if I have no agreement with partner as to the strength of our 1NT opening and choose to open 1NT with a 16-count, that is situation B and does establish an implicit agrement (our 1NT range is now known to include 16-counts, although the rest of the range may not yet be defined). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted July 8, 2011 Report Share Posted July 8, 2011 Too many players seem to use the "not discussed" or "no agreement" technicality as an excuse to avoid giving opponents the disclosure they are entitled to. IMHO such players have completely failed to understand the concept of fair play. I believe that whenever a player uses a particular call it is with an expectation that partner will understand the call as intended, and there must be some reason for this expectation. This reason should be known to opponents. Players should also be aware that knowledge is not "general bridge knowledge" unless it is known by bridge players in general. If a player truly and honestly has no idea of the meaning of his partner's call then of course he has no information to disclose, but how often is that really the case? I suspect: Almost never. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted July 8, 2011 Report Share Posted July 8, 2011 Players should also be aware that knowledge is not "general bridge knowledge" unless it is known by bridge players in general. For example, in case 2 above, the player may guess at the meaning of a call because it is the expected meaning that people who share their common bridge culture would assume. This is not general bridge knowledge. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted July 8, 2011 Report Share Posted July 8, 2011 How is a player who has not played all over the world supposed to be able to differentiate between the common bridge culture locally and general bridge knowledge? Are we to interpret this law as "if you haven't played in events all over the world, nothing you know is "general bridge knowledge"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted July 8, 2011 Report Share Posted July 8, 2011 I thought general bridge knowledge was another way of describing logic or common sense (general), not awareness of regional differences. Examples:--a player who has denied a suit previously, and who introduces that suit later must intend the bid as artificial (impossible 2S in a forcing NT auction).--a player who has chosen not to open the bidding and later bids NT without any call from partner, does not have a natural intent. Either of these, if not previously discussed --and partner needs to figure it out also, would fall under the definition of GBK. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted July 8, 2011 Report Share Posted July 8, 2011 How is a player who has not played all over the world supposed to be able to differentiate between the common bridge culture locally and general bridge knowledge? Last week I played for the first time with a very good player. We had agreed "rubber bridge methods" (basically no conventions but initial takeout doubles, Stayman, Blackwood and Truscott). An auction went, starting with me: P-P-1♦-X; 2♠ What is 2♠ in rubber bridge methods? Partner correctly assumed that it was a fit bid. Was this assumption based on the fact that this treatment would be normal in places where we both play? Or is it "general bridge knowledge" that 2♠ could scarcely be anything else? I think that if players have a damn good idea of what partner's bid is and the opponents don't, they should disclose it, if necessary with disclaimers. If the opponents don't know it, the knowledge is not that general. So I guess the answer to the above question is that the opponents' potential knowledge can be a guideline for "general bridge knowledge". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted July 8, 2011 Report Share Posted July 8, 2011 There is an easy advice to the question of "general bridge knowledge": If you are not sure that your opponents posess the knowledge in question then it is not general bridge knowledge. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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