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Tactical (non) opening bid ?


dellache

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Heh.

 

32 KT98 AT92 QT2 is 10.6

QT KT98 AT92 QT2 is 11.35

 

So KNR is only counting 0.75 for the doubleton queen ten of spades which is clearly too little. Anyway, opening with a balanced 12 means, on a continuous scale, any hand closer to 12 than 11. So 11.51 is enough and I only need to value the spade holding as 0.91 to get there.

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I tend to pass balanced 11/poor12 counts in 3rd because I play in the context of a system that opens all balanced 11 counts in 1st (at these colours anyway).

 

However, the pips are just too sexy to pass here imo.

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My partner already opened 1S lightly,

unless he had both majors 10-ish

-leaving this hand to me to start/not.

I start 1H.

Without spades-in-lightly from partner as a negative inference,

swayed by "where are the spades?"

NOT US - SO NO ENCOURAGING A 1S OVERCALL.!!

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At the table, partner had a non suitable 7HCP 3325 Hand, bid 1NT and went 3 down after a few misguesses (double dummy was 1 down, good play would have been 2 down imo). LHO had 4351 16HCP (stiff J), and decided to pass this (?!). At the other table, East passed in 3rd, and declarer had to be very clever to manage 9 tricks in Spades (we miraculously stopped in 3 with silent oppos, south having 4351 - 16HCP). I guess if you pass they usually reach 4 and go 2 down on the board. So it was a practical 12 imps loss.

 

We are not result merchants, but were just wondering afterwards what was the real purpose of opening 1 RED in 3rd with those defensive values : do we really want to play 1NT after 1 1 1NT or 1 1NT ? Do we really think that if partner cannot bid 1 we will prevent oppos to find Spades and not facilitate their cardplay ? Or do we think that we must enter the bidding and the pros are higher than the cons ? I'm still perplexed about this.

 

NOTE: I would have not resisted the temptation to open 1 myself, as a "gut" bid. This hand has opening bid values...

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We are not result merchants, but were just wondering afterwards what was the real purpose of opening 1 RED in 3rd with those defensive values : do we really want to play 1NT after 1 1 1NT or 1 1NT ? Do we really think that if partner cannot bid 1 we will prevent oppos to find Spades and not facilitate their cardplay ? Or do we think that we must enter the bidding and the pros are higher than the cons ? I'm still perplexed about this.

 

If we bid 1-1;1NT-pass, I'd be expecting to make it more often than not. Those spot cards ought to make it quite hard to defend. So one reason that I'm opening the bidding is to try to make a partscore.

 

If the opponents have a spade fit and we have a red-suit fit, it may or may not be right to compete to the three level, but I'd prefer a cooperative sequence like

[hv=d=s&v=b&b=7&a=pp1d1sd2sppdp3h]133|100[/hv]

than one where I have to decide what to do without involving my partner, such as:

[hv=d=s&v=b&b=7&a=ppp1sp2s]133|100[/hv]

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