iscbrooks Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 When you have a five-card suit and a balanced hand (5-3-3-2) with the five in a major, and 15-18 HCP, when should you open the major and when would 1NT be preferrable? Take the following hands: [hv=s=sakt83hqjtdkj3cq2]133|100|[/hv][hv=s=sakt83hqjtdkj3cq2]133|100|[/hv][hv=s=sakt83hqjtdkj3cq2]133|100|[/hv] Which ones would you recommend 1NT for, and which would 1S be better? What principle should influence the decision? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 This is one of bridge's perennial questions. My answer is that they should all be opened 1NT. The principle to use is "Balanced hands should be bid as balanced hands" Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 I agree. With each of those hands they should all be opened 1NT, as you want to be declarer whereever you finish up, with all your tenace positions. Say you end up in 3NT after a 1S opening and your partner declares, the lead will be going through your tenaces, which could well be worth 2-3 tricks. The only time with 15-17 bal (playing a strong NT) that I won't open 1NT with a 5 card major is if I have a hand such as: AKQxxAKxxxxxx when there really is no advantage to me playing the hand, as my tricks will be tricks no matter who declares the hand. However, with a small doubleton spade and a 5 card heart suit, I always open 1NT if in range. Mark Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
GaryFisch Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 would not open 1st 1NT w/Qx - don't want to play NT - last two yes w/Kx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 All balanced hands in the NT range should be opened with the appropriate NT bid. Shape is all important. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 All balanced hands in the NT range should be opened with the appropriate NT bid. Shape is all important. What would you open if each hand were an Ace lighter? Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nickf Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 Why do we open 1NT?Because we are suggesting to partner that we have a balanced hand more suitable for NTs than suitplay. Why do we play Stayman? So the partnership discussion (ie auction) can determine whether the hand belongs in NT or a suit contract. Swap the hearts and spades in the three example hands you cite. Say the auction proceeds 1H: 1S from partner: 1NT by you is now an underbid and 2NT from you is an overbid. Nick Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 All balanced hands in the NT range should be opened with the appropriate NT bid. Shape is all important. What would you open if each hand were an Ace lighter? Eric Playing a weak NT I would open that. Playing a strong NT you are forced to open 1M. I don't see the point of the question EricK. If the balanced hand falls outside your NT range you are forced to open something else. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skorchev Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 I will open 1NT with all of these hands. There is a reason to open 1M if you play 1M-1NT forcing, then you can bid 2m and after 2NT, but still 1NT opening is better. Stefan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 I will open ALL of these with 1NT as well. You have your range and distribution... Theoretically, it might be better not to open the last hand, since you might end up in a 5-2 ♥ fit instead of a 5-3♠ fit when partner isn't strong enough for game. From the moment he's strong enough for game, I have a nice tool to find any 5-3 fit M, so that's no problem.If you calculate the avarage of HCP partner has, you'll get something like:15 -> 8.33 = 23.3316 -> 8.00 = 24.0017 -> 7.67 = 24.6718 -> 7.33 = 25.33So you can clearly see on average, your partner will have an invitational or better hand, so you won't be playing many 5-2 fits anyway. And IF you are playing a 5-2, you don't even always have a 5-3 available.The few problem cases are too few to avoid NT-openings and get rebid problems imo. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 I am quite happy to disagree with everyone here, since I will open every of them with 1♠. The only hands I don´t open 1M when having 5 cards are when my suit is 109xxx or worse, or when having 21+ balanced, or when having both majors since I cannot open both majors at same time :D). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 All balanced hands in the NT range should be opened with the appropriate NT bid. Shape is all important. What would you open if each hand were an Ace lighter? Eric Playing a weak NT I would open that. Playing a strong NT you are forced to open 1M. I don't see the point of the question EricK. If the balanced hand falls outside your NT range you are forced to open something else. The point of the question is that if you are playing a forcing 1NT response, then you can't show the balanced hand as a balanced hand. So is the priority to show the balanced nature of your hand (which you can do by opening 1♣ or your better minor and rebidding 1NT or raising partner's ♠ bid) or to show the spade suit? Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 I recall Kaplan saying somewhere that he didn't think he had ever opened 1NT, holding a five-card major suit. That may be extreme -- but still, Kaplan's opinion is surely worthy of some respect, and might (perhaps) cause some of the respondents here to rethink their certainty that it is "always" right to open 1NT. I also recall more than one occasion when opening the five-card major led to game in the major, bid and made, after a single raise from 1M to 2M -- while they opened 1NT at the other table and played it right there. Conclusion? Here, as elsewhere, it doesn't pay to be dogmatic. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 Having said what I just said, I would nevertheless open all three of the hands 1NT (if in range). Each of them has a "must-declare" holding, Kx or Qx, so you should go out of your way to get in the first notrump. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 I started playing bridge with 5-card majors openings. I tried to open 1M as often as possible back then, meaning no opening 1NT or 2NT with 5-card majors... Then I gradually started relaxing those requirements until I ended up playing a 1NT of 9-11 with 5-card major possible! 1NT openings are sooo descriptive and have such a good preemptive value that is hard to resist the temptation of showing your hand in one shot. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 i don't have this problem... with me, all the posted hands are opened 1S... as a matter of fact, with 5 spades i'd give some thought to opening 1S even if those were within my nt range... it's different with hearts, with H/S reversed and 12-14 i'd open 1nt in each case... i can't bid 1H/1S/1NT with 12-14 everything is governed by my possible rebids... if the hands posted were weak enough to fall within my nt range, opening 1S can get me in trouble (because of the forcing 1nt - no trouble if i played a semi-forcing 1nt) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 Yes, that's my opinion as well: with ♥ I don't have ANY problems of bidding 1NT, just to keep opps out of a possible 2♠ contract. With ♠ you might consider showing the ♠ suit to be able to compete (which you can still do when opps intervene your NT btw) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 i don't have this problem... with me, all the posted hands are opened 1S... as a matter of fact, with 5 spades i'd give some thought to opening 1S even if those were within my nt range... it's different with hearts, with H/S reversed and 12-14 i'd open 1nt in each case... i can't bid 1H/1S/1NT with 12-14 everything is governed by my possible rebids... if the hands posted were weak enough to fall within my nt range, opening 1S can get me in trouble (because of the forcing 1nt - no trouble if i played a semi-forcing 1nt) I don´t difference between majors for 1 reason: I won´t rebid 2NT unles spartner made a 2/1. I mean that to me 1M-1NT-2NT is game forcing, 18-19 (and due to some other conventions it could be non balanced sometimes, but that´s out of the question). when I hold a balanced 5332 with 15-17 I open 1M, and then rebid my best minor, that is regardless of playing 2/1, or whatever 5 card major system. This works the same way when partner responds 1♠. (I actually have switched the 1♠-1NT meanings over 1♥ recently). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 I am swayed towards opening 1NT if: - I am playing strong NT. It is the easiest way to show that I have extra strength. - It is IMPs. 1NT tick is only an imp worse than 2S tick, and 3NT is only an imp down on 4S tick. At MPs it is worth a lot more. - I have hearts. It is possible that both sides miss their major fit, and as they can outbid us at the same level this is likely to favour us. - I want to declare (split honours). - I'm not desperate for the suit to be led. - I have a way to look for 5-3 fits when going to game. - I do not have a lot of extra playing strength in the major suit. A maximum with hard honours could well miss game if it opens 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulhar Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 would not open 1st 1NT w/Qx - don't want to play NT - last two yes w/Kx If you have Qx and your partner has Axx, which hand should declare NT? Each of them has a "must-declare" holding, Kx or Qx, Exactly. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 i don't have this problem... with me, all the posted hands are opened 1S... as a matter of fact, with 5 spades i'd give some thought to opening 1S even if those were within my nt range... it's different with hearts, with H/S reversed and 12-14 i'd open 1nt in each case... i can't bid 1H/1S/1NT with 12-14 everything is governed by my possible rebids... if the hands posted were weak enough to fall within my nt range, opening 1S can get me in trouble (because of the forcing 1nt - no trouble if i played a semi-forcing 1nt) I don´t difference between majors for 1 reason: I won´t rebid 2NT unles spartner made a 2/1. I mean that to me 1M-1NT-2NT is game forcing, 18-19 (and due to some other conventions it could be non balanced sometimes, but that´s out of the question). when I hold a balanced 5332 with 15-17 I open 1M, and then rebid my best minor, that is regardless of playing 2/1, or whatever 5 card major system. This works the same way when partner responds 1♠. (I actually have switched the 1♠-1NT meanings over 1♥ recently). i understand... but see, i *can't* open 1nt with 5332 15-17... since my nt is 12-14 (or 10-13) i'd have to open 1 of a suit then rebid 1nt to show this range... this actually works out well since responder knows whether or not to use 2 way ckback, etc... i'd also open 12-14 with 1M if i was unbalanced... so for me, 1S : 1NT : 2D (for example) would almost guarantee 5/4+ in my 2 suits, with about 17 hcp tops... i agree with you on 1M/1NT/2NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted September 6, 2004 Report Share Posted September 6, 2004 All balanced hands in the NT range should be opened with the appropriate NT bid. Shape is all important. What would you open if each hand were an Ace lighter? Eric Playing a weak NT I would open that. Playing a strong NT you are forced to open 1M. I don't see the point of the question EricK. If the balanced hand falls outside your NT range you are forced to open something else. The point of the question is that if you are playing a forcing 1NT response, then you can't show the balanced hand as a balanced hand. So is the priority to show the balanced nature of your hand (which you can do by opening 1♣ or your better minor and rebidding 1NT or raising partner's ♠ bid) or to show the spade suit? Eric I think you are drawing a long bow, EricK. My point is and always was that if you have a balanced hand, (5332 4333, 4432 and maybe some 5422s and 6322 with a long m), in the NT range you are playing, then you should open 1N/2N. If the hcp range falls outside the NT range, then of course, you have to make some other bid and the most descriptive with a 5 card M is to open that M. To make a distinction here as to whether the 5 card M is H or S as some posters have done is silly imo, though I can understand the rationale behind this reasoning. You are altering your system rebids depending on the M you hold. This is adding additional complexity to your system and cannot be good if you wish to develop a coherent, consistent and logical progression of rebids. As so often happens with questions of this nature, some posters frequently respond by "I would do this if...but that if..." without looking at the impact of the decision on the system as a whole. eg Lets take 2 hands: ♠ AKT83 ♥ QJT ♦ KJ3 ♣ Q2 ♠ QJT♥ AKT83 ♦ KJ3 ♣ Q2 If you open the first 1S, what do you bid over 2C? 2N? If you open the second 1N, what does the auction 1H 2C 2N show? It can't show this hand else you would have opened it with 1N. If you rebid 2D on either or both, then I am sorry but there is little hope for you as an informative bidder as you have totally misdescribed your hand. Finally, appeals to authority such as "Kaplan says this, therefore..." carry little weight unless one knows what Kaplan would do, and I don't mean playing KS either. Would he rebid 2N? If so how do you handle balanced hands in the 12-14 range? Would he bid a non suit such as 2D? If so, my question is what is better -to show in one bid a hand of balanced nature in a given range or to show in 2 bids an unbalanced, (5-4+), hand of indeterminate point count? I know what my answer is. I prefer precision to obfuscation. Ron. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted September 7, 2004 Report Share Posted September 7, 2004 I completely agree with everything that Ron just wrote. The inferences when you do open 1M is a significant advantage. Also, what Kaplan said should not be taken lightly, but there are a great many leading theorist who open 1NT with all balanced hands in the range (e.g. Marty Bergen). The issue seems too complex to be absolutely certain what's best. I'd say that the weaker the notrump range, the larger the disadvantage of opening 1NT with 5-card majors. Besides, if system allows you could pass a semi-forcing notrump bid with 12 or 13 points after opening 1M. I'm not talking about mini-notrumps, as your system may not allow you to open 1M with those hands, and then opening 1NT clearly seems preferable. I would enjoy it if Fluffy would explain his reasons for opening 1M with (almost) all hands containing a five-card major. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
keylime Posted September 7, 2004 Report Share Posted September 7, 2004 I open 1NT if this is the following: 1. If I have a five card major, the OTHER major has 3 cards in it.2. If I have 3 of 4 suits stopped.3. If it looks NTish - meaning if I have concentrated values in suits, it should be a suit. Scatter values with some tens and nines = NT.4. Tens and nines. With more of them, hand upgrades and NT looks better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted September 7, 2004 Report Share Posted September 7, 2004 I think you are drawing a long bow, EricK. My point is and always was that if you have a balanced hand, (5332 4333, 4432 and maybe some 5422s and 6322 with a long m), in the NT range you are playing, then you should open 1N/2N. I agree with this. If the hcp range falls outside the NT range, then of course, you have to make some other bid and the most descriptive with a 5 card M is to open that M. The most descriptive single bid is to bid the 5cM. But... If so, my question is what is better -to show in one bid a hand of balanced nature in a given range or to show in 2 bids an unbalanced, (5-4+), hand of indeterminate point count? I know what my answer is. I prefer precision to obfuscation. What is better, to show in two bids a balanced hand outside your NT range, or to show in two bids an unbalanced (5-4+) hand. Isn't one of the major advantages of bidding balanced hands as balanced hands that when you don't have a balanced hand partner will know about it? That applies equally well to 5332 hands inside your NT range, 5332 hands outside your NT range and (to bring in another oft quoted hand) 4234 (etc) hands outside your NT range. Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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