flat 15 v partners bust hand

[el mister]

Held the following hand and bid it Acol style 1♣ followed by a 1NT rebid.

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sqjthat2dk76ckq95&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=p1cdp1s1ndppp]133|200[/hv]

 

Given that pard doesn't want to get involved over 1♣X, is it best just to bow out of this one and let them have it (ie pass instead of 1NT)? Or is it better to still go ahead and describe your hand fully with the 1NT rebid (albeit ♠ stopper a bit thin)?

 

It went off a few as the cards lay, which got me thinking. If pard's got nowt then the 1NT rebid leaves you a bit exposed.

[wank]

your actual sequence shows a stronger hand in acol or any other system - the equivalent of a jump NT rebid if your partner had responded so probably 18-19 or so.

 

partner can bid if he has any significant hidden values.

 

if he has nothing you're just putting yourself in danger by bidding.

 

anyway, why would you want to bid? pass is a convenient call - you may have a point or 2 extra for an opening bid but you have no shape so your playing strength is pretty minimal.

[gwnn]

18-20 ish indeed.

 

I heard of the principle that you sohuld assume that partner's 1m is based on a strong NT until proven otherwise. Perhaps it's not entirely sound but it's simplish and makes passing here happier (albeit it should be quite happy anyway).

[el mister]

I had this exact sequence tonight as it goes. Rejected the rebid and defended 1NT their way in a tight contract. So thanks for the advice :)

[the hog]

Indeed, the 1NT bid is poor. Why bid 1NT when pd cannot even respond? From where are your ticks going to come?

[P_Marlowe]

1NT in this seq. showes 17-19, i.e. a hand slightly too weak to

open 2NT, so pass.

 

Since you are playing a weak NT, your minor suit opening get stronger,

together with 1C promising a 4 card suit, why should p act over X,

if he is weak?

 

He should also pass, playing other systems, but playing Acol, there is

no need to act.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe