kgr Posted March 6, 2011 Report Share Posted March 6, 2011 IMP's[hv=pc=n&s=sj98762hqj9dqcq96&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1c1s]133|200[/hv]Your Call? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 6, 2011 Report Share Posted March 6, 2011 First pass is clear IMO, the econd one is more debatable lacking defensive quick tricks but -160 ain't the end of the world Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted March 6, 2011 Author Report Share Posted March 6, 2011 First pass is clear IMO, the second one is more debatable lacking defensive quick tricks but -160 ain't the end of the worldI'm surprised by this. I would think that you only pass initially if you want to pass again when partner DBL's & if you don't want to Pass again then it is better to start with 1NT to show your pnt range? So I would think that if the 1st pass is clear then the 2nd is also clear? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 6, 2011 Report Share Posted March 6, 2011 I'm surprised by this. I would think that you only pass initially if you want to pass again when partner DBL's & if you don't want to Pass again then it is better to start with 1NT to show your pnt range? So I would think that if the 1st pass is clear then the 2nd is also clear? Those thoughts went thru my alledged mind, and I might apply them to this one. But 1NT does have some flaws, so passing and then dogging it with 1NT after the reopening double might work also. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 6, 2011 Report Share Posted March 6, 2011 yes when you consider this hand worth 8 HCP, but the honnors are so bad I consider downgrading it to the 2-6 range where pass then 1NT happens Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted March 7, 2011 Report Share Posted March 7, 2011 This hand is worth a lot less than 8HCP, all sorts of downgrades, especially since our own suit is useless. I'd pass first, and rebid 1NT if partner Doubles. Since it's imps, I kind of like 2♣ instead of 1NT, the chance is huge that partner has 5 of them, and we have ruffing values and some ♥ stuffing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted March 7, 2011 Author Report Share Posted March 7, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sj98762hqj9dqcq96&w=s4h8732djt987653c&n=s5h654dak4ca85432&e=sakqt3haktd2ckjt7&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1c1sppdpp2dp2np3dd3np4ddppp]399|300[/hv]We were lucky that opps saved us from 3♦X to 4♦X and misplayed to go -1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted March 8, 2011 Report Share Posted March 8, 2011 None of the above: Pass + 2♣ over pard's take out dbl, since pard rates to have 1444 or 1435/1345. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted March 9, 2011 Report Share Posted March 9, 2011 Pass followed by 1NT looks totally obvious. Why pass first? To slow down the auction; also there is no guarantee that partner will make a t/o double.To show how fatuous it is to make a penalty pass the second time around, look at the actual hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted March 9, 2011 Report Share Posted March 9, 2011 IMP's[hv=pc=n&s=sj98762hqj9dqcq96&d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1c1s]133|200[/hv]Your Call? Pass.P will always double, if my LHO keeps quiet.And Pass again: It looks like I have 4 (4.5) assured tricks.At the worst it is 1S=. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted March 9, 2011 Report Share Posted March 9, 2011 Pass followed by 1NT looks totally obvious. Why pass first? To slow down the auction; also there is no guarantee that partner will make a t/o double.To show how fatuous it is to make a penalty pass the second time around, look at the actual hand. No, this cannot be a good action.What has P do think about that ? Playing Negative doubles, your pass on the first round "could be" a penalty pass.You were unable to bid 1NT on first round and now you deny a penalty pass.Your 1NT bid cannot be a proposal to play there. To me it is a take out for the other 2 colors. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted March 9, 2011 Report Share Posted March 9, 2011 No, this cannot be a good action.What has P do think about that ? Playing Negative doubles, your pass on the first round "could be" a penalty pass.You were unable to bid 1NT on first round and now you deny a penalty pass.Your 1NT bid cannot be a proposal to play there. To me it is a take out for the other 2 colors.You've never held a balanced 7 count with a stopper before? FWIW I agree w/the hog here, although the actual hand is a bit atypical. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted March 9, 2011 Report Share Posted March 9, 2011 Playing Negative doubles, your pass on the first round "could be" a penalty pass.You were unable to bid 1NT on first round and now you deny a penalty pass.Your 1NT bid cannot be a proposal to play there. To me it is a take out for the other 2 colors. considering that advancer passed the overcall, and that partner is reopening with a double, (try not to be influenced by this exact holding of 6 cards in their suit), you are much more likely to hold a relatively balanced hand below the standard 8-count (good 7), than to hold support for both unbid suits and not made a neg double. If you do have that, you can chose a suit. But if you have the weak balanced 1NT hand type, you have nowhere to go. So, on frequency, your idea of an artificial 1NT is less useful than a natural weak 1NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted March 10, 2011 Report Share Posted March 10, 2011 You've never held a balanced 7 count with a stopper before? FWIW I agree w/the hog here, although the actual hand is a bit atypical. ? I do not understand your comments.So,... why not an immediate 1NT, no need to wait till partner doubles..... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted March 10, 2011 Report Share Posted March 10, 2011 considering that advancer passed the overcall, and that partner is reopening with a double, (try not to be influenced by this exact holding of 6 cards in their suit), you are much more likely to hold a relatively balanced hand below the standard 8-count (good 7), than to hold support for both unbid suits and not made a neg double. If you do have that, you can chose a suit. But if you have the weak balanced 1NT hand type, you have nowhere to go. So, on frequency, your idea of an artificial 1NT is less useful than a natural weak 1NT. Yes.If you pass the 1♠ overcall, and seen your length in ♠, it is 99% sure that partner will double, to protect you against a penalty pass....You can not stand that penalty pass.So... i think it is better to bid 1NT immediately: at leat P know that you have 6+ H and a stopper.......No ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted March 10, 2011 Report Share Posted March 10, 2011 considering that advancer passed the overcall, and that partner is reopening with a double, (try not to be influenced by this exact holding of 6 cards in their suit), you are much more likely to hold a relatively balanced hand below the standard 8-count (good 7), than to hold support for both unbid suits and not made a neg double. If you do have that, you can chose a suit. But if you have the weak balanced 1NT hand type, you have nowhere to go. So, on frequency, your idea of an artificial 1NT is less useful than a natural weak 1NT. What I mean is:Or you decide you want to penalize the overcaller and you pass (partner will/must double !).Or you do not want to risk a 1♠X= and you bid 1NT immediatelyA delayed 1NTbid makes no sense, unless it is a T/O for the minors (unlikely !). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted March 10, 2011 Report Share Posted March 10, 2011 ? I do not understand your comments.So,... why not an immediate 1NT, no need to wait till partner doubles.....Cos that shows about 8-10 points you do not have Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted March 10, 2011 Report Share Posted March 10, 2011 Cos that shows about 8-10 points you do not have Any good reason to play a direct 1NT as 8-10 ?I use to play it 6-9 (10)... Any reason to change this after the overcall ? Any references on that ?It certainly is not specified that this should change in the SAYC booklet or in BWS2001. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted March 10, 2011 Report Share Posted March 10, 2011 Any good reason to play a direct 1NT as 8-10 ?I use to play it 6-9 (10)... Any reason to change this after the overcall ? Any references on that ?It certainly is not specified that this should change in the SAYC booklet or in BWS2001.BWS2001 is not god. Nor is SAYC. Maybe spaghetti monsters, but I digress... Anyway, the overall allows us to not be forced into bidding 1N on 6-7 HCP hands, which rarely play well, and if penalized can often be quite a massacre. Reserving 1N for constructive 8-10 hands allows you to bid better both constructively and defensively. The 6-7 HCP hands aren't really thrilled about bidding the first time, but now they have to find a call. In this case, that is 1N. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted March 10, 2011 Report Share Posted March 10, 2011 BWS2001 is not god. Nor is SAYC. Maybe spaghetti monsters, but I digress... Anyway, the overall allows us to not be forced into bidding 1N on 6-7 HCP hands, which rarely play well, and if penalized can often be quite a massacre. Reserving 1N for constructive 8-10 hands allows you to bid better both constructively and defensively. The 6-7 HCP hands aren't really thrilled about bidding the first time, but now they have to find a call. In this case, that is 1N. no, no Gods. :) .but at the least authorative guidelines !!! We all can learn a lot from our Masters. I did some internet-research on that free bid of 1NT. I found some sources who defend the 8-10 version, but at least as many consider the 1NT response as unchanged.I understand part of your arguments; but I see also the added stress to find a response on 6-7H hands. Without choosing for one or other option, I would consider, that, if no special agreements have been made with partner, the 1NT bid is 6(6good)-10H. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted March 11, 2011 Report Share Posted March 11, 2011 Lurpoa, with all due respects, if you are not going to take any notice of peoples' answers, the why ask questions. Playing 1NT immediately as a stronger bid is almost universal. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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