Jump to content

Meaning of 2NT


Free

Recommended Posts

It's very abnormal but it could be: 6-7 HCP with 3 clubs and spade stopper. 'I didn't bid 1NT earlier 'cause I didn't have the HCP's but if your clubs are so good and you have the other stoppers we could have a go at 3NT, if not just bid 3'

 

It could also be: 10-12 with good spades and either 'Now that you rebid clubs I don't want to penalty-double them' or 'Since you rebid your clubs I don't think I'll get to penalty-double them, so NT is our best strain in my opinion'.

 

Crazy ain't it? But that 2NT is. I guess it's meaning it's just a matter of partnership.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I completely disagree with Hanoi5, I think it is a weak minor oriented takeout not wanting to double because not enough strength to defend 2X. Something like a 2=3=6=2 or 1=4=6=2 or 1=3=6=3 or 1=4=5=3 that wasn't strong enough to double 1, wants to compete to the 3 level with the reds and especially diamonds in the picture, but knows that 3 is a safe landing spot. Say x Txxx QJxxxx Qx.
  • Upvote 1
Link to comment
Share on other sites

For those who say minors any strength (or something similar), can this be done on 0HCP with a 6-2/6-3/7-3? Or do you need a useful tophonour somewhere? Or 2 tophonours? And what is in your opinion the main purpose of the call?
Link to comment
Share on other sites

For those who say minors any strength (or something similar), can this be done on 0HCP with a 6-2/6-3/7-3? Or do you need a useful tophonour somewhere? Or 2 tophonours? And what is in your opinion the main purpose of the call?

opener should bid 3 or 3 100% of the time. he does not need to know how strong responder is.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

If you have no way to show a weak hand with hearts, then I would read it differently...

A double first time would be takeout, so double now would be penalty. I think 2NT is a general purpose forcing bid to get partner to bid again. Maybe something like a 2551 shape, maybe 2 clubs, but certainly both red suits.

 

Conversely, if you play immediate bids as non-forcing, then I'll go along with the xx62 shape.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

The 2551 or whatever just doubles 1, wtp?

 

Most people have an agreement that an initial double is strong enough to take a typical non-fitting rebid, for example a takeout double of a 2 bid opposite a non-fitting minimum opener has a reasonable play in 2NT. In this instance, an immediate double will be assumed strong enough to play in 1NT and a good opener can reply 3NT for example.

 

If this x55x is only a 4 count I (and I am sure many others) would not double. However, if opponents are going to be making 2S then I now have a chance to show my red suits so partner can pick one. This is "tp".

Link to comment
Share on other sites

I had 95-93-K98762-T84 and bid 2NT. My reasoning was that it definitely showed both minors and was just competitive + early showing a possible sacrifice without committing to it when opps would actually bid 4.

 

My partner bid 3 with A642-AK52-void-A7653, I corrected to 4 and he raised to 5.

 

Needless to say it was a very poor result. I was blamed for the poor score because passing or bidding 3 wouldn't result in such a disaster. We don't have a 100% clear agreement about the 2NT call, but I thought my partner should've been able to deduct a useful meaning to the call. I haven't had the chance to talk to him about it and ask him what he thought it meant, so I still don't understand why he bid this way. I suspect his reasoning is something like: "We don't have an agreement so I must consider this natural, however unlikely it is".

 

We have good system notes with a lot of agreements about 2NT in all sorts of situations (lebensohl, scrambling, INV+ with support,...), but this sequence has never come up.

 

Here's a principle question: Suppose you agree with bidding 2NT with this hand (if that's too hard, suppose I have a 2=1=7=3), should I still refrain from bidding 2NT because we lack a clear agreement or should I just bid it because it's the right call?

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Needless to say it was a very poor result. I was blamed for the poor score because passing or bidding 3 wouldn't result in such a disaster. We don't have a 100% clear agreement about the 2NT call, but I thought my partner should've been able to deduct a useful meaning to the call. I haven't had the chance to talk to him about it and ask him what he thought it meant, so I still don't understand why he bid this way. I suspect his reasoning is something like: "We don't have an agreement so I must consider this natural, however unlikely it is".

 

Or it could simply be that he interprets it as I do, namely that the 2NT bid showed both the other suits, ergo the 3 bid. When you bid 4 he can see a chance of game. You can't have many spades to make the bid (just one or two) and the cross ruffs look great.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Facing a partner who thinks outside the box a bit, I'd certainly bid it. Facing a student or inexperienced player, I'd bid 3. I think partner should be able to work out what this is though, after all, if you had a penalty of spades you would double 2, and what other hand types are there?

 

Fromage, I still don't think that 5-5 in the reds can bid this way, and even if they could, partner should assume minors, and if you happen to have reds, you can always correct 3 to 3... Not any different than any other 2 places to play 2N. Therefore I think partner has to bid 3.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

It seems to me that there's no real reason to compete on total garbage without a club fit here. It's just asking for trouble.

 

What types of non-awful hands pass over 1: (1) Trap passes. These can double now. This double should be penalty, since a decent hand with red suits would double 1. (2) Balanced hands without a clear bid. These hands usually include 3, so you can just raise here. If you have doubleton club and no spade control bidding 2NT now seems silly anyway. (3) Hands with primary diamonds, assuming you play forcing free bids. These hands can actually be fairly good (say up to 8 or 9 hcp) since 2 would show better values, double would show hearts, and 3 (if weak and not fit or splinter) might show a better/longer suit.

 

Seems clear to me that 2NT should therefore show diamonds, constructive values, and some degree of club fit (often doubleton). Hands with really long diamonds can just bid 3 here (or maybe 3 right off, if that's natural and weak). I think 5-6 + 2 would be the normal hand. On Free's hand I would've bid 3; usually with three-card support bidding 3 seems better than putting partner to a guess.

Link to comment
Share on other sites

Join the conversation

You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.

Guest
Reply to this topic...

×   Pasted as rich text.   Paste as plain text instead

  Only 75 emoji are allowed.

×   Your link has been automatically embedded.   Display as a link instead

×   Your previous content has been restored.   Clear editor

×   You cannot paste images directly. Upload or insert images from URL.

Loading...
×
×
  • Create New...