gurgistan Posted February 20, 2011 Report Share Posted February 20, 2011 [hv=pc=n&s=sqt9hk853dt3cakj7&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1c2c2d2spp3d3h3nppp]133|200|Partner bids after the Michaels cuebid. I have no idea what his bid means so I pass. He is random pickup and Michaels is rare enough with little instruction on how to proceed after it if one is defending. When East competes. I decide it is safer to pass than bid as I have nothing new to say and if Partner is other than minimum he will let me know. When Partner rebids 3♦, I feel that with both of the majors stopped and partner showing extra hcp and/or length we may have a Gambling 3N type of scenario. So I bid 3N. Questions:1. What does Partner have for his 2♦ bid?2. What does Partner have for his 3♦ rebid?3. How good or bad is my 3N bid?[/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aguahombre Posted February 20, 2011 Report Share Posted February 20, 2011 (edited) We do have agreements over Mike:--2H=limit+ for clubs--2S=game with long diamonds--3D=invite with diamonds.--double=start of cooperative doubling or NoTrump.--2D=to play. (Like a negative freebid because of the abv) So, partner wanted to play in 2D. Then, maybe because he had an extra diamond, he wanted to play in 3D. If this is true, your opening bid contains no surprises and you are not to be further involved in the auction. You even showed lack of a third diamond by passing on round two. How bad is 3N? If we have the above agreements, it is pretty bad. If not (and you state you have not discussed it), then whatever you do is a guess, and far be it from me to question your guess in a crapshoot situation. However, I still don't think the auction has done anything for the opening bidder's hand, except make him want to find a green card. Edited February 20, 2011 by aguahombre Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nigel_k Posted February 20, 2011 Report Share Posted February 20, 2011 I would pass instead of bidding 3NT. Partner's 2♦ is a one round force only and 3♦ suggests he has good diamonds and a desire to compete for the partscore, but nothing more. For example, partner might have Jx xx AQJxxx Qxx. If partner's diamonds are not completely solid, any diamond finesse is likely to fail since LHO probably has short diamonds so you will be down in 3NT. If partner's diamonds are solid you still need the ♠J as well to stop them taking the first five spades and a heart, or they could take two spades and three hearts. Also, partner might have bid more with solid diamonds and certainly would have with any other useful card as well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Siegmund Posted February 20, 2011 Report Share Posted February 20, 2011 My agreement is similar to agua's, and with a pickup partner above a certain level I would gamble on partner defaulting to that style of agreement , i.e., I expect partner to have a minimum response with a long diamond suit, not values for 3NT (unless perhaps I have Ax/Kx of diamonds and a couple other tricks, hoping to make 3NT by peeling 7 diamonds plus two aces.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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