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6H Play (free - kgr)


kgr

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[hv=pc=n&s=sa2hakt432dkq432c&n=s43hj9da765caj432&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=1h1sdp2sp3cp3hp4hp4sp4np6c(3%20or%201%20and%20Cl%20Void)p6hppp]266|200[/hv]

6 or 7 would have been better contracts, but we arrived at 6

(You can comment on the bidding, but I'm most interested in the play first. About the bidding: I preferred to show my length first and planned to bid next, but that was not possible anymore.)

West leads K that you take with the A (East following with a small ).

Next I played A and throw J from North. Both opps following with a small .

Is it now best to continue with:

- K

- or with a small to A, followed by A and finesse?

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(You can comment on the bidding, but I'm most interested in the play first. About the bidding: I preferred to show my length first and planned to bid next, but that was not possible anymore.)

I can't think why it was not possible: 3 rather than 3 would have done the trick.

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I can't think why it was not possible: 3 rather than 3 would have done the trick.

I thought my sentence said that it was not possible anymore to show after I started with 3?

I preferred to start with 3 because I thought I would show a 5-5 otherwise. Or have to bid a non-forcing 4 to show a 6c. But I agree that 3 is better (certainly after the DBL of partner), partner will support sometime with a doubleton and no .

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Cashing a second heart gains when LHO has three diamonds and Qx. It loses when hearts are Qxxx-x, either way around.

 

If we ignore both the overcall and any vacant-space considerations, the chance that LHO has three diamonds and Qx is roughly:

  Diamonds 3=1: 25%

  Hearts 2=3: 44%

  Q in the short hand = 40%

25% * 44% * 40% ~= 4.5%

 

The chance of someone having Qxxx is:

  Hearts 4-1: 28%

  No singleton queen: 80%

28% * 80% ~= 22%

 

That's such a large difference that we can assume that hearts 4-1 is more likely, without doing any more accurate calculations. Hence I would play the finesse line.

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Seems clear to finesse.

 

If I'm not mistaken we're comparing lefty having x vs (Qx+xxx). x and Qx are approximately equally likely a priori (4 cases) and 3 diamonds with lefty is only ~20%. Any empty spaces considerations will swing it even more as it's less likely the 1 bidder has length in both reds.

 

Edit after seeing gnasher's: oops, right, Qxxx with lefty is important too. Even less close.

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Cashing a second heart gains when LHO has three diamonds and Qx. It loses when hearts are Qxxx-x, either way around.

 

If we ignore both the overcall and any vacant-space considerations, the chance that LHO has three diamonds and Qx is roughly:

  Diamonds 3=1: 25%

  Hearts 2=3: 44%

  Q in the short hand = 40%

25% * 44% * 40% ~= 4.5%

 

The chance of someone having Qxxx is:

  Hearts 4-1: 28%

  No singleton queen: 80%

28% * 80% ~= 22%

 

That's such a large difference that we can assume that hearts 4-1 is more likely, without doing any more accurate calculations. Hence I would play the finesse line.

4.78% for Diamonds 0-4

4.78% for Diamonds 4-0, but RHO would have given a Lightner DBL then. 1% is enough for 4-0

=> That leads to ~10% vs ~22% in favor of finesse?

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4.78% for Diamonds 0-4

4.78% for Diamonds 4-0, but RHO would have given a Lightner DBL then. 1% is enough for 4-0

=> That leads to ~10% vs ~22% in favor of finesse?

If diamonds are 0=4 or 4=0, you will also need Q to be doubleton - otherwise you will have two losers. Hence you should multiply those figures by (0.4 * 0.44).

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If diamonds are 0=4 or 4=0, you will also need Q to be doubleton - otherwise you will have two losers. Hence you should multiply those figures by (0.4 * 0.44).

Yes, right.

I played and LHO had void and RHO had Qx.

My teammates said it was obvious to play AK

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I thought my sentence said that it was not possible anymore to show after I started with 3?

I preferred to start with 3 because I thought I would show a 5-5 otherwise. Or have to bid a non-forcing 4 to show a 6c. But I agree that 3 is better (certainly after the DBL of partner), partner will support sometime with a doubleton and no .

3 was very wrong. With 6-5, you always bid 2nd suit at second chance (bid it again at 3rd chance). Or else you would never be able to show the 5-card suit.

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Yeah, we had a very weird auction (imo) and ended up in 6 instead of 7. Your team mates were a bit more aggressive, they raised ! Why didn't you open this as a GF 2-suiter anyway, I thought you had the tools?

 

[hv=d=n&v=e&b=3&a=pp1h1sd2s3sd(%5BI%27m%20not%20sure%20if%20it%20was%20doubled%5D)4cp4dp4hp4sp5dp5np6dppp]133|100[/hv]

 

Imo the suit is the best suit to play once partner Doubled. We should have 9 of them, and we only need A to make grand in many cases. Partner won't have 3, but he may have Q/A/K/5s/... I think rebidding is a poor choice.

 

I believe partner was a passed hand, and I was still thinking of grand slam :D

 

EDIT: I don't believe cashing AK is that much better. You'll lose against all but one 4-1 trump splits, which is more common than a 4-0 split (~26.53% vs ~9,56%).

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Yeah, we had a very weird auction (imo) and ended up in 6 instead of 7. Your team mates were a bit more aggressive, they raised ! Why didn't you open this as a GF 2-suiter anyway, I thought you had the tools?

First of all, congrats again with your score.

I thought the bidding would go better by opening 1.

With our 2 structure this goes:

2-2

3-4 (3=GF with and a Major.)

...

[hv=d=n&v=e&b=3&a=pp1h1sd2s3sd(%5BI%27m%20not%20sure%20if%20it%20was%20doubled%5D)4cp4dp4hp4sp5dp5np6dppp]133|100[/hv]

 

Imo the suit is the best suit to play once partner Doubled. We should have 9 of them, and we only need A to make grand in many cases. Partner won't have 3, but he may have Q/A/K/5s/... I think rebidding is a poor choice.

I agree now that bidding is better than rebidding

EDIT: I don't believe cashing AK is that much better. You'll lose against all but one 4-1 trump splits, which is more common than a 4-0 split (~26.53% vs ~9,56%).

This is a strange way to say that cashing AK is worse?
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