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Irish Derby 3


manudude03

Drop or finesse  

11 members have voted

  1. 1. Drop or finesse (in this auction)

  2. 2. Drop or finesse when S shows both majors



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Third in the series. Board 8/32, 28 imps up.

 

[hv=pc=n&w=sj3hqt94d652ckq74&e=sakqhkdakj874ca65&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp2cp2dp3dp3hp3np4np6dppp]266|200[/hv]

 

Lead: A (South playing the 2), switched to J. Go on from here.

 

For the second poll question, the auction started 2D (any GF- benji acol) and a 3D overcall from South showing both majors, how do you play now.

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I would have avoided the problem by passing 4NT (unless I could arrange to defend 3x).

 

On the uncontested sequence, A lead is a bit strange - it could be very costly, and it's unlikely that heart losers can be discarded anywhere. Against a weak player, it might suggest that he has Qxx; against a strong player, I don't really know what it means. South's pass over 2 points slightly in the direction of playing for the drop, because with lots of shape he might have bid. So it depends on your estimation of the North player.

 

On the contested sequence, you should finesse - a two-card difference in the vacant spaces is enough to swing it in favour of finessing, and here the difference is at least four.

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I would have avoided the problem by passing 4NT (unless I could arrange to defend 3x).

 

On the uncontested sequence, A lead is a bit strange - it could be very costly, and it's unlikely that heart losers can be discarded anywhere. Against a weak player, it might suggest that he has Qxx; against a strong player, I don't really know what it means. South's pass over 2 points slightly in the direction of playing for the drop, because with lots of shape he might have bid. So it depends on your estimation of the North player.

 

On the contested sequence, you should finesse - a two-card difference in the vacant spaces is enough to swing it in favour of finessing, and here the difference is at least four.

Pass? The bid of 3NT tells your partner that you have shown your hand already, and he still continues to explore a diamond slam, so passing would be a terrible breach of captaincy.

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Pass? The bid of 3NT tells your partner that you have shown your hand already, and he still continues to explore a diamond slam, so passing would be a terrible breach of captaincy.

 

When my partners bid 4NT in reply to a 3NT bid, it's natural, invitational and passable.

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When my partners bid 4NT in reply to a 3NT bid, it's natural, invitational and passable.

 

I was discussing this auction with my partner last night, and both independently thought that responder's 4NT should deny a top diamond honour and deny 3-card support. The actual hand is a clear 4D bid over 3NT.

 

Accordingly we both thought pass of 4NT was correct. The D10 would make a huge difference, because now we usually have 5 diamond tricks opposite a singleton.

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Finesse on both cases.

Case 1 : the Ace on this sequence points toward QTx in North's hand (it is still dubious, but with xx it is awful).

Case 2 : vacant places tells us to finesse.

 

Case 1: I think this is too deep. Q10x under the 6D bidder is rarely going to be a trick.

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Case 1: I think this is too deep. Q10x under the 6D bidder is rarely going to be a trick.

 

Indeed. Ace is a dubious lead at any rate. We need to evaluate how dubious it was depending on the trump holding.

QTx is rarely going to be a trick, but now it is if declarer plays for the drop ;)

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A lead point towards finesing, not a very strong inference, but better than nothing. When someone holds A +Q looking for a trick from partner its rather pointless, so he just led A to avoid a disaster if J is in dummy.

 

BTW on the second bidding it is not that easy if the defence was +club, you have to decide between cashing A and risking a second club or direct finese and I have no clue what is the correct line.

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BTW on the second bidding it is not that easy if the defence was +club, you have to decide between cashing A and risking a second club or direct finese and I have no clue what is the correct line.

Another possibility is to cash a diamond and then ruff a spade to dummy.

 

The bidding should help us here. I assume it started 2 (3) dbl. Then:

- If North bid 3, we assume that South is 6511, so we cash one diamond and then cross in clubs.

- If North bid 3, we assume that South is 5611, but he's definitely not 6511, so we cross with a spade ruff.

- If North passed, we assume South is 5-5, so we cross with a spade ruff. If he turns out to be 6-6, we ask our NPC to check South's eligibility to play in this event.

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I'll post the other tables auction this time :)

 

[hv=pc=n&s=st98652hj8732d3c2&w=sj3hqt94d652ckq74&n=s74ha65dqt9cjt983&e=sakqhkdakj874ca65&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp2d(23+)3d(both%20majors)dp4dp4n(normal%20blackwood)p5sp6dppp]399|300[/hv]

 

My partner played for the drop which meant -1. At this table, South led a top spade, declarer crossed to dummy and finessed first round to make it. We lost 14 for that.

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I'm not sure, not even sure if the pair who bid it have discussed followups. I suspect one of them forgot system (they haven't been playing much recently) will ask next time I see one of them online.

 

EDIT: I asked South last night about this auction. He took it as <=2 card support for either major, he did go on to say that he'll need to discuss it with his partner.

Edited by manudude03
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