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rebid after f1nt


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There's often a case for bidding 3 on light values when holding a seven-card suit as here.

 

This hand seems borderline to me; I think I would bid 2 but slightly better spades (say the jack or even the ten) would be enough for me to bid 3.

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I bid 2, partner passed with QT, K7, J853, A7653 and we missed an easy game, we were both at the top for our bids. (A987643, A54, A4, T)

 

I was talking with a local expert about this hand and he said one "expert" treatment is for you to bid 2 to limit the hand (i.e. non-forcing) but hope your partner doesn't pass. Then you bid again at the minimum level. In 2/1 with forcing NT your 2 bid typically only promises 3.

 

He also added that this isn't mainstream, sounds good on paper but when partner passes 2 and you miss your 7-2 fit, don't call me. :)

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This is a clear 2 1/2 bid.

 

:)

 

Seriously, a case can be made for bidding 2 or 3. I would lean slightly to bidding 2.

 

If you bid 2 and partner shows signs of life, the question then becomes do you bid 4.

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I bid 2, partner passed with QT, K7, J853, A7653 and we missed an easy game, we were both at the top for our bids. (A987643, A54, A4, T)

 

 

Your 2 bid was not the reason you missed game. It is perfectly normal in a 2/1 system, and much better than bidding a 2 card diamond suit (imagine partner passing with 1 spade and 3 diamonds...shudder).

 

In my opinion, your partner should not have passed 2. He has 3 cover cards (an A, a K, and the Q of trump), and should evaluate his hand as invitational opposite a 2 rebid, bidding 3 to show an invite with 2 card spade support.

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Partner should have raised to 3. 9 HCP with a ruffing value and no wastage is enough (disregarding the J).

 

I don't agree with a 2 rebid at all. It will be wrong if partner passes, and if not you are bidding 3 next which you could have done directly over 1NT. Though I think 2 is enough. It would be ok to bid 2 on something like Axxxxx Axx AKx x because then you might make 2 but not 3 when partner has spade shortage and because you don't want partner to raise 3 with a singleton.

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Partner should have raised to 3. 9 HCP with a ruffing value and no wastage is enough (disregarding the J).

 

I don't agree with a 2 rebid at all. It will be wrong if partner passes, and if not you are bidding 3 next which you could have done directly over 1NT. Though I think 2 is enough. It would be ok to bid 2 on something like Axxxxx Axx AKx x because then you might make 2 but not 3 when partner has spade shortage and because you don't want partner to raise 3 with a singleton.

 

I concur with Nigel. Your partner had 3 very fgood cards for you and should have raised to 3S. Bidding 2D is very poor.

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2 for me but I have the luxury of a partner that will bid 2nt over that with any reasonable excuse.

 

ie. opposite the actual Qx, Kx, Jxxx, Axxxxx 3nt would roll opposite 6 running spades and the Ace of hearts.

 

I have been convinced by her to bid 2nt in these situations much more often than I used to but it means we don't open nearly as many 11 counts as others do.

 

Note: Just saw the comment for a raise to 3 spades which works for me too as long as you don't open modest 11's.

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I was talking with a local expert about this hand and he said one "expert" treatment is for you to bid 2 to limit the hand (i.e. non-forcing) but hope your partner doesn't pass. Then you bid again at the minimum level. In 2/1 with forcing NT your 2 bid typically only promises 3.

 

You might bid this way with Axxxxx KQx x AQx. The hand is quite strong for 2S and 3S doesn't look attractive with such a weak suit. Also, you could easily belong in hearts, and 2C makes it easier for partner to introduce them. If partner passes 2C, you probably haven't missed a game (more relevant at IMPS) and you might make 2C when 2S (or 3S) goes down.

 

Suggesting this idea with A987643, A54, A4, T is truly horrible.

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