Trinidad Posted January 9, 2011 Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 An idiot check. Why did EW miss game (IMPs)?(EW play 2/1 GF, 15-17 NT.) [hv=pc=n&w=s643ha953dqj3cq82&e=sakq7hjt74dcat975&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1cp1hp3hppp]266|200[/hv] Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted January 9, 2011 Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 The 3♥ bid usually shows not only a med hand but also an UNBALANCED one. This is because a balanced med hand opens... 1NT :) Thus opener is probably 5-4 or thereabouts and West has two key cards, making game a decent shot. I'd say West should bid game first, ask questions later. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted January 9, 2011 Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 I would bid immediately 4♥ as opener. Bit also responder should bid 4♥ on 3♥ from opener (or 3NT, if you don't play it as Serious 3NT, or something else). 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted January 9, 2011 Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 East doesn't really have a bid which allows West to evaluate his hand properly. Since he has quite a powerhouse he could well just blast 4♥. West... yeah West doesn't have a great hand but he already passed once and, hey, it's IMPs. I would say 65% East, 35% West. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted January 9, 2011 Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 An idiot check. Why did EW miss game (IMPs)?(EW play 2/1 GF, 15-17 NT.) [hv=pc=n&w=s643ha953dqj3cq82&e=sakq7hjt74dcat975&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1cp1hp3hppp]266|200[/hv] Rik..........1C1H.....3D! = reverse-jump splinter (will at least get another bid from West).............OR 4D! = void if you think you are strong enough for GF Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted January 9, 2011 Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 .............OR 4D! = void if you think you are strong enough for GF ...in which case you might as well bid 4♥, as partner is a passed hand and slam accordingly unlikely. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TWO4BRIDGE Posted January 9, 2011 Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 ...in which case you might as well bid 4♥, as partner is a passed hand and slam accordingly unlikely.You can never tell....Responder might have no wastage in Diam and a working 10 or 11 hcp: x A 9 x x xx x xK Q x x Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trinidad Posted January 9, 2011 Author Report Share Posted January 9, 2011 ..........1C1H.....3D! = reverse-jump splinter (will at least get another bid from West).............OR 4D! = void if you think you are strong enough for GFUnfortunately, the 3♦ bid was not available as a splinter. For starters, we have the general agreement that jump reverses are game forcing splinters. The reason for that is that you can't fit all the invitational splinters into the jump reverses. Therefore, we think that it is better to use them as GF splinters and use the bidding level that we have gained for cuebidding.We also have the specific agreement that the cheapest jump reverse (when one is available, like here) shows a GF balanced raise to 4♥. In this case:3♦ GF Balanced3♥ invitation3♠ GF splinter3NT Gambling 3NT with too much outside4♣ Support with good club suit4♦ Splinter (With another partner, I play that the cheapest reverse is either/or: a GF splinter or a GF balanced raise. Responder can relay to ask: Step 1 is splinter, the rest are balanced and cues.) Rik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Siegmund Posted January 10, 2011 Report Share Posted January 10, 2011 3H and the final pass were both slight underbids but I don't think there is much blame to be given. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TylerE Posted January 10, 2011 Report Share Posted January 10, 2011 I'm gonna go about 99.9% with West. Some of y'all must be bidding 3♥ on a lot less than i'd expect for it. IMO it's a more of a courtesy bid to give partner a chance to bail with drecky 6 counts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted January 10, 2011 Report Share Posted January 10, 2011 A jump raise shows about 18 or 19 support points (15 with a stiff, or a balanced 18 being a typical hand). Responder has 9 points, including a fitting club honor. That is more than enough for game, so responder messed up by passing. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted January 10, 2011 Report Share Posted January 10, 2011 west Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted January 10, 2011 Report Share Posted January 10, 2011 Happens. 1C,1H,3H are clear, ... bidding 4H instead of 3H is not out of this world,but 3H is certainly ok. Simple HCP counting says, that 4H instead of Pass is right, but the 4333shape and the Queens and Jack indicate that the HCP overvaluated the hand,so passing is also reasonable. And one is green, so game needs 50%, missing a 50% game is not terrible. With kind regardsMarlowe PS: I read Justins comment, that the 3H bid showes approx. 18-19, for me a 3Hbid showes something in the range of 15/16-18, he mentions some example hands, butI would also make the bid with a semibal. 15/16 count . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the_dude Posted January 10, 2011 Report Share Posted January 10, 2011 West .. his partner invited and he has 9 .. 66% of which are clearly working overtime. At what point does he accept? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted January 10, 2011 Report Share Posted January 10, 2011 3♥ was mildly conservative, but I think I would probably do the same. Passing 3♥ however was just plain bad. How much more do you need to have?! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted January 11, 2011 Report Share Posted January 11, 2011 PS: I read Justins comment, that the 3H bid showes approx. 18-19, for me a 3Hbid showes something in the range of 15/16-18, he mentions some example hands, butI would also make the bid with a semibal. 15/16 count . Marlowe, maybe you didn't udnerstand me but I said something like 18-19 support points (meaning HCP + distributional points). With a 4432 16 count you would open 1N, so presumably by semibalanced you mean 4225. A 4225 16 count is, to me, 18 support points (16 HCP + 1 point for each doubleton). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted January 13, 2011 Report Share Posted January 13, 2011 Marlowe, maybe you didn't udnerstand me but I said something like 18-19 support points (meaning HCP + distributional points). With a 4432 16 count you would open 1N, so presumably by semibalanced you mean 4225. A 4225 16 count is, to me, 18 support points (16 HCP + 1 point for each doubleton). Yes semibal. means 5422 in the given situation.I rarely add distribution points for doubletons, but if one does, than 18-19 support pointswill result in the similar set of hands, with which I would raise to 3M. It may still be, that my raises are slightly weaker, due to the fact that I started to playusing the Acol system, so that the jump raises started with 15HCP (also in the context ofa weak NT). But this could just be an illusion. With kind regardsMarlowe PS: Even my reg. p has no clue, how I count the points, ... and I have no clue, how hecounts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted January 14, 2011 Report Share Posted January 14, 2011 [quote name='P_Marlowe' timestamp='1294901383' post='522175' It may still be, that my raises are slightly weaker, due to the fact that I started to playusing the Acol system, so that the jump raises started with 15HCP (also in the context ofa weak NT). But this could just be an illusion. With kind regardsMarlowe PS: Even my reg. p has no clue, how I count the points, ... and I have no clue, how hecounts. eh? If you play weak NT (which isn't the same as playing Acol) then jump raises are if anything stronger than in a strong NT system. If you raise a 1-level response to the 2-level then you either have an unbalanced hand or strong NT values (which are much the same thing when it comes to playing strength). Playing strong NT, a raise to the 2-level might be a balanced 12-count, so there is more incentive to jump on a pretty 16-count. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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