Poky Posted August 28, 2004 Report Share Posted August 28, 2004 ♠A♥Kx♦JTxx♣QJTxxx 1♣ - 1♦2♦ - 3♣??? What do you bid and why? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 3NT, makable contract imo, no immediate slam ambition. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 sounds good to me Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 ♠A♥Kx♦JTxx♣QJTxxx 1♣ - 1♦2♦ - 3♣??? What do you bid and why? I bid 3♥ I'm worried about 3N. Partner either needs a Spade stopper OR AK of clubs for 3NT to have good play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 3H. Best bid to explore best available contract, whether that is 3N or 5C Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 3H isn't bad, but i'd not feel comfortable with partner bidding the nt now (unless he also has hearts)... i'd not like a heart lead thru me Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 I'm not sure how forcing 3♣ is but partner has had two opportunities to bid NT and failed to do so on both occasions. He needs a lot of specific cards for 3NT to make and it seems safer to invite with 4♣ than risk a lot of undertricks in 3NT. Of course given opps silence it seems most likely that 3♣ is forcing and partner must have a good hand. In that case perhaps a minorwood 4♣ is appropriate .... presumably in my regular partnership I'd know what 4♣ means :) The scoring and vulnerability would play a part too. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 Nobody (so far) has suggested a hand for partner (who responded 1D to your 1C, then bid 3C over your raise to 2D). So I'll propose one: S - Kxx H - xxx D - Kxx C - 9xxx. He responded to 1C in case you had a moose (and also because he didn't want to give the opponents a free run). He didn't raise clubs because no club raise seemed appropriate. He didn't bid 1NT because he didn't want to wrong-side that contract, and because he thought he was a little weak for that bid. (Maybe he is one of those people who believe 1C-1NT shows 8-10.) So he bid a squirrelly 1D, thinking the bidding wouldn't get out of hand. (1C-1D-2D is something of a rarity, after all.) Now he is just taking a preference back to clubs, where he knows you have real length. (He assumes you would have opened 1D with 4-4 in the minors, or that you would have rebid 1NT instead of 2D.) So, pass 3C, unless you want to bid 4C or 5C as a sacrifice. T.L.Goodwin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 I'm not sure about SAYC, but in my system and in Crowhurst's Acol this sequence is forcing. I think in most systems it should be invitational and hands such as Kxx xxx Kxx 9xxx must either respond 1NT or take their medicine and pass 2♦. Not that this hand is very likely, since it means that the opponents have both majors and the clear majority of points and it normally only requires one of these conditions to be true to ensure they bid :) However I agree that if it is not forcing, then pass is an attractive bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jtfanclub Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 Nobody (so far) has suggested a hand for partner (who responded 1D to your 1C, then bid 3C over your raise to 2D). So I'll propose one: S - Kxx H - xxx D - Kxx C - 9xxx. I'm most definitely not an expert... Wow, I'm glad I don't play with experts much. My partner bids 1D on that, I'll be a wee bit upset (unless we're playing precision, of course). If he wants to lie a little and bid 2C, I'm down with that. If he wants to lie a little and bid 1NT, that's OK too. But to make an unlimited bid like 1D...ew. And then, when he knows that we don't have game and we're in a fit (albeit not a good one), he bids on to the three level? Is he hoping that we'll get to 3NT undoubled and be down 3 when the opponents have a makeable game? To me, 3C is a very strong invite- he has to be willing to leave a solid passable bid to go up a level to bid game. He's also bypassed 2NT, which IMO should be a medium strength invite. Partner has a lot of clubs, and something flawed in a major (maybe the singleton KS?). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TimG Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 Nobody (so far) has suggested a hand for partner (who responded 1D to your 1C, then bid 3C over your raise to 2D). So I'll propose one: S - Kxx H - xxx D - Kxx C - 9xxx. He responded to 1C in case you had a moose (and also because he didn't want to give the opponents a free run). He didn't raise clubs because no club raise seemed appropriate. He didn't bid 1NT because he didn't want to wrong-side that contract, and because he thought he was a little weak for that bid. (Maybe he is one of those people who believe 1C-1NT shows 8-10.) So he bid a squirrelly 1D, thinking the bidding wouldn't get out of hand. (1C-1D-2D is something of a rarity, after all.) Now he is just taking a preference back to clubs, where he knows you have real length. Isn't the slow raise generally stronger than a direct raise? Shouldn't responder pass 2♦ with your example hand rather than risk further encouragment with 3♣? Of course, with your example responding hand and the given opening hand, the opponents' silence in rather curious. So, maybe bidding 3♣ will serve to further impede the opponents' entry into the auction. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
goodwintr Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 OK, so you guys don't like my constructed example hand, or my interpretation of the sequence as "running back to clubs." So, what do you think your partner has? T.L.Goodwin Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 i don't know what he has, but i know he doesn't have the hand you constructed, and bid two times with it... nobody would yell at him for passing 1C with that hand, or for bidding 1NT... or even for bidding 1D... but after 2D by opener, the only thing he should say is 'pass' Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BridgeBuff Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 I don’t think I play that forcing, but I also don’t think there is much point to partner bidding 3♣ simply to improve the partial, so he must have an invitational hand of some kind, and a reason for not bidding 1NT or 2NT or 3♦. He must be unbalanced (his hand, that is). I think he must be 4=5 or 5=5 minors. He has nothing in majors or he would have bid one first or second chance. He isn't 4=4 minors unless something like xxx/xx/KQxx/Axxx and his partnership doesn't like a 1NT response with that holding. He isn't xxxx/x/KQxx/Axxx or he would have responded 1S, surely. He isn't xxx/x/KQxxx/Axxx or he would invite with 3♦. That leaves xxx/x/KQxx/Axxxx or xx/x/KQxxx/Axxxx or the like. At least that's what I think my partners would lay down. Looks to me like 4♣ is about right. With these 'what would you bid' questions, a lot depends on partnership style. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 3NT here. After having shown 9-10 cards in the minors, the NT bid now shows where most of my values lie. I can't think of anything more descriptive. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben47 Posted August 29, 2004 Report Share Posted August 29, 2004 I think partner is raising the bar for opponents because 2♦ will not be passed out. I guess he has something like 2254 and 8 HCP. I pass. If partner has xxxxKQxxxAxxx 5♣ is against the odds and 4♣ could go down. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulhar Posted August 30, 2004 Report Share Posted August 30, 2004 In standard bidding, I would presume this sequence to be a forcing game try - the opener would bid 3D if rejecting or something else if accepting, but the responder might have higher aspirations which makes it forcing. I'm guessing by the opponents' silence that partner has the hand which wants to do more. Since I think I can make 5C opposite a typical game try (xx, xx, KQxxx, AKxx is not enough to force to game in a minor but I don't think partner has much in the majors as he could have bid 2NT or 2 of a major, so I'll bid 4C for now. I don't like partner's chances in 3NT opposite my example hand which I think would be typical. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
skorchev Posted September 4, 2004 Report Share Posted September 4, 2004 3♥ for me. Should investigate 3NT or 5♣! Stefan Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Poky Posted September 7, 2004 Author Report Share Posted September 7, 2004 ♠A♥Kx♦JTxx♣QJTxxx 1♣ - 1♦2♦ - 3♣??? The 3♣ bidder had...♠xxx♥Qx♦AKQxx♣Axx...and was passed all around for 3♣+2. Do you think 2♠/2♥ showing GF bids are better than the "unclear" 3♣? Since we agreed fit in diamonds I think 3♣ should be "INV+ with double fit, F1" and only the 3♦ response is passable below the 3NT level. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
daswallow Posted September 7, 2004 Report Share Posted September 7, 2004 If 3♣ has not been agreed as forcing, it is a dangerous bid.You know 3NT is unlikely to be right (I am assuming this is IMPs?) unless there are 9 tricks on top, in which case a minor suit game/slam should be on too.I would probably bid 5d, as the hand has no real slam ambition unless partner has both unbid suits controlled. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted September 7, 2004 Report Share Posted September 7, 2004 There is a convention called levy 2Diamonds (see "what pro's play) where a jump to 2D over 1C shows limit type hand with diamonds and a club fit. Playing levy 2D, this auction is 100% forcing. I think of this 2D as a fit jump kind of thing. I eventually gave up levy 2D to play criss-cross. Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
sceptic Posted September 8, 2004 Report Share Posted September 8, 2004 I am curious of the advantage of criss cross over levy? or your reason for change Ben? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
junyi_zhu Posted September 15, 2004 Report Share Posted September 15, 2004 I play this 3C as gameforcing. With invitational hands, responder can either bid 2NT or 3D. If it's gameforcing, opener's rebid is clear, 3H as a cuebid to show heart value. and later pull partner's possible 3NT to 4C. With this long soft clubs, you belong to either 5C or 6C. sometimes, 6C can be cold when 3NT goes down:Sxxx HAx DAKQx CKxxx. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
peefco Posted September 15, 2004 Report Share Posted September 15, 2004 Nobody (so far) has suggested a hand for partner (who responded 1D to your 1C, then bid 3C over your raise to 2D). So I'll propose one: S - Kxx H - xxx D - Kxx C - 9xxx. He responded to 1C in case you had a moose (and also because he didn't want to give the opponents a free run). He didn't raise clubs because no club raise seemed appropriate. He didn't bid 1NT because he didn't want to wrong-side that contract, and because he thought he was a little weak for that bid. (Maybe he is one of those people who believe 1C-1NT shows 8-10.) So he bid a squirrelly 1D, thinking the bidding wouldn't get out of hand. (1C-1D-2D is something of a rarity, after all.) Now he is just taking a preference back to clubs, where he knows you have real length. (He assumes you would have opened 1D with 4-4 in the minors, or that you would have rebid 1NT instead of 2D.) So, pass 3C, unless you want to bid 4C or 5C as a sacrifice. T.L.GoodwinThis hand doesnt look serious to me. If we have 17HCP, 4!S and 5!H why opps with 23HCP 9!S and 8!H didnt bid anything ????????????????3!C is forcing bid and 3!H seams to be the best rebid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Flame Posted September 15, 2004 Report Share Posted September 15, 2004 If i have to take a guess at this point, 5c is best (better then 5d , 3nt and partsocores) also slams seems out of the question, since 3c is inv but nf.So either i bid it, or i can try to reach it slowly with 3h which will still leave room for 3nt by partner, but i doubt this will help, i wont know if 3nt is any better then, so i choose 5c now. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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