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will you open this?


NV MP 9862,AK7543,V,J62  

35 members have voted

  1. 1. Would you open this 1H? (you can select multiple answers for both questions)

    • 1st seat
      0
    • 2nd
      0
    • 3rd
    • 4th
    • I would not open this 1H in any position
  2. 2. Would you open this 2H?



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I am shamelessly classical: a 4-card major and a void is two strikes against my hand for a weak two. I open 2H in 3rd seat only, and pass in the other 3 seats. (If its NV-vs-V, you can make a case for 3H instead of 2H in 3rd.)

 

In my club game I'd be in a minority for passing because most the field doesn't know better; on the forum I may well be in a minority anyway for playing a stricter style than a lot of people like these days.

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I am a bit surprised at the number of people who would open this neither 1 nor 2 in 4th seat. I can understand pass at IMPs, but it is matchpoints, and I expect to make 2 most of the time. My four spades will make it hard for the opps to come in. Where is the mistake in my thinking?
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I'm going to pass just because nothing really fits.

 

1 is below my standards for a 1 bid, but only barely.

2 isn't right with this much playing strength + 4 spades + a void.

3 is plain strange, as is 4.

 

Someone might convince me 1 is right. No one can convince me any other call is right.

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You are playing MP, NV and pickup 9862, AK7543, void, J62

 

Here's my idiosyncratic take on things:

 

In second seat, I absolutely would not open the hand.

The hand is too weak for 1H and has too many flaws (side void, side 4 card major) for 2H

(Second seat is the seat where preempts should be most disciplined)

 

In first seat, I suspect that i would pass as well

Once again, too weak for 1H and too flawed for 2H

 

In third seat, I'd open, but I think that I would open 3

 

In 4th seat, I'd open 1H. The hand has a lot of playing strength.

We own the majors, so passing this out feels wrong.

At the same time, I don't want to bury the spades.

1H gives us a chance at identifying another strain.

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I am a bit surprised at the number of people who would open this neither 1 nor 2 in 4th seat. I can understand pass at IMPs, but it is matchpoints, and I expect to make 2 most of the time. My four spades will make it hard for the opps to come in. Where is the mistake in my thinking?

I misclicked - I wanted to bid 1 in 4th actually

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I'm a passenger for the reasons already mentioned except in 3rd seat I have had success opening 1, followed by 2 and then 3 if necessary, often finding a better or lower spot than blasting 3.

 

My regular pard and I pass a lot of unremarkable 11 and a few 12 counts so I open in 4th but am torn between 1 and 2. We have a lot of safety valves in place to avoid passed hand blasting. ie. after 1 - dbl - rdbl - whatever, 2 is weak, where as pass followed by 2 is more constructive.

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I am a bit surprised at the number of people who would open this neither 1♥ nor 2♥ in 4th seat. I can understand pass at IMPs, but it is matchpoints, and I expect to make 2♥ most of the time. My four spades will make it hard for the opps to come in. Where is the mistake in my thinking?

 

The main mistake here IMO is that you have a partner. Neither 1H nor 2H requires him to pass. He presumably has a 10- or 11-point hand. A lot of the time you want to make 2H you are going to get to go down in 3H or 4H instead, or guess what to do after the opps bid and raise diamonds, or tear your hair out after partner bids diamonds; the times you actually get dumped in 2H may well be the times you come up a trick short.

 

It does depend (a lot) on your style and agreements. For me that hand is more than a full trick light for a fourth-seat 2-level opening. And for me, I am allowed to open a light 1H in 3rd or 4th on a hand like Kxx AQxxx xx xxx planning to pass any response from partner, but if it goes 1H-1S-2H or 1H-1S-2S or 1H-2D(diamonds)-2H partner will expect a full opening bid from me and we'll be off to the races if we have a fit. If you play Drury maybe you'll be safe; on the other hand, maybe because you play Drury your partner will feel obligated to leap to 3 of a minor, or respond 1NT and follow up with 3D on his 3-0-6-4 that he didnt open 2D because of the diamond void, or...

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I always thought that p-p-p-2 was mainly an attempt to play 2, and with a hand that wants to be in game opposite 10 HCP and a low doubleton in hearts I would kick off the auction with 1.

 

If partner feels "obligated to leap to 3 of a minor" with some random crap I'll look for a new partner, and then tell him that passed-hand leaps to 3 of a minor are fit showing just so he doesn't do the same.

 

And BTW, the last time I opened 2 with a diamond void, I was playing Precision. ;) As for heart voids, they are for me perhaps a reason to upgrade to 3 but certainly not a reason to pass.

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