Axx KQJxx Q KQTx

[losercover]

We had a hand almost exactly like this is a recent sectional. I opened one 1H, pass , my partner passed and the opponent bid 2d, passed around to my partner who bid 2H. The 2d bidder bid 3D, I bid 3H and was doubled, making 3.

[bulovapsb]

I disagree totally with the above. Using your logic xxxxx xx Ax Jx should respond 1NTY to 1H. This is clearly absurd. I disagree that a 1S bid followed by a preference to 2H shows any extra values at all and I wonder from where you are getting this idea.

I would be happy to entertain this argument, if the hand you presented for me to bypass 1♠ holding xxxxx did not consist of only 6 other cards. Give me a 6th ♠ and I'm prepared to bid 2♠/a 1N rebid, or pass a 2♥ rebid. Or pass any 2-minor call in which I hold another card (or two...hard to tell when I'm given only 11).

 

I am reconsidering, based on other discussion, what was being probed by the advance after my 2♥ preference. But I remain unconvinced that 2N is the correct call in any case with 3-5-1-4 shape.

 

So I'm willing to concede ...2♠-3♥ pass. I've been advised that even 2N-pass isn't egregious, but 2N-3♥ is superior (since I have 3 card support).

 

I still tend to try and bid games at IMPs on the basis of the risk-reward. Getting to the RIGHT strain, however, is important.

[bulovapsb]

indeed, it is precisely because you may have this hand-type that your partner was correct to rebid 2N. 2N didn't ask whether you had 4-5 hcp...it asked whether you held 8-10!

With most 10-11s, I'd rebid 2N myself with a balanced hand and ♥xx. So let's agree that I was being asked for 7+-to-9 (X+ is a good X with spots and/or no evident wastage).

 

The biggest problem with the 2N advance, is that if I'm the same 5-ct with 4-2-4-3 shape, then we're playing 2N. If I'm 4-2-3-4, then I've probably passed 2♣.

 

But I do "get it". Hence my above-mentioned reconsideration of the purpose of the advancing call.

[the hog]

I would be happy to entertain this argument, if the hand you presented for me to bypass 1♠ holding xxxxx did not consist of only 6 other cards. Give me a 6th ♠ and I'm prepared to bid 2♠/a 1N rebid, or pass a 2♥ rebid. Or pass any 2-minor call in which I hold another card (or two...hard to tell when I'm given only 11).

 

I am reconsidering, based on other discussion, what was being probed by the advance after my 2♥ preference. But I remain unconvinced that 2N is the correct call in any case with 3-5-1-4 shape.

 

So I'm willing to concede ...2♠-3♥ pass. I've been advised that even 2N-pass isn't egregious, but 2N-3♥ is superior (since I have 3 card support).

 

I still tend to try and bid games at IMPs on the basis of the risk-reward. Getting to the RIGHT strain, however, is important.

 

Sorry meant

xxxxx xx Axxx Jx

[bulovapsb]

Sorry meant

xxxxx xx Axxx Jx

I look at this hand and seriously consider passing at my first call. Let the opponents come in... I don't mind defending ♠ (unless partner is void, in which case we have at least a minor-suit fit) and I can take a competitive push to 2♥ if they stop in 2-minor.

 

My fear is that, should I choose to respond 1♠, even after I take a simple preference back to ♥ over opener's rebid, partner will put me on more values than I actually hold (sort of what happened in the original, given, auction).