jillybean Posted November 17, 2010 Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 Playing 2/1 & kickback You hold K9, J862, KQ6, AT42 Partner opens 1st seat 1♦:1♥2♣:2♠ *4sgf3♣:4♣4♥:4♠ *cue *cue4N What is partner doing bidding 4N? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted November 17, 2010 Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 Well, apparently he has some slam interest but isn't prepared to take the leap. Perhaps he has a heart void and is saying, please go on unless your values are mostly wasted. Do you have any agreements as to what a cue in partner's suit shows? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted November 17, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 Well, apparently he has some slam interest but isn't prepared to take the leap. Perhaps he has a heart void and is saying, please go on unless your values are mostly wasted. Do you have any agreements as to what a cue in partner's suit shows? 4♥ will be showing the Ace or King Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 Anyway, I'm bidding 5♣. We have a minimum GF and the ♠K is a horrible card. If partner has two spades we are likely losing two spade tricks because opps are leading through the king. If partner has two hearts we are likely losing a spade and a heart. Partner might have ♠Qx but then he might still have the stiff ♥K. He might even have ♠A but missing the ♣K. And so on... there are too many ways to go down if we bid past 5♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 If 4D over 4C is the only RKC bid available, then 4NT is a "last train" type of bid where partner is still interested and wants to know how good our hand is. As it is, I have the golden KQ of diamonds for partner so I bid 6C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tomi2 Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 partner thinks we forced to game after his non forcing 2 clubs and then shoewd strong slam interest by 4th suit and 4 clubs and a cuebid, so probably he has a decent hand and asks for aces, I bid 5 clubs no matter if its 0 or 1 and expect partner to go down one. Then I ask myself, why I had forgotten to bid 3NT Playing 2/1 & kickback You hold K91, J862, KQ6, AT42 Partner opens 1st seat 1♦:1♥2♣:2♠ *4sgf3♣:4♣4♥:4♠ *cue *cue4N What is partner doing bidding 4N? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted November 18, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 How about 4N as a ♦ cue here? And, what is standard when making a cue bid in partners 1st bid suit, 1st round control? Ace only? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Lurpoa Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 Playing 2/1 & kickback You hold K91, J862, KQ6, AT42 Partner opens 1st seat 1♦:1♥2♣:2♠ *4sgf3♣:4♣4♥:4♠ *cue *cue4N What is partner doing bidding 4N? 4♣ = slam intrest - I think a little optimistic with your 4333 - I would ave tried 3NT.4♥ = no ♦A, but I have ♥A (no use to bid a void in P's color).4♠ = should be ♠A, but anyway slam intrest.4NT = yes partner, your decision, if I bid 5♣ it would mean,I really have nothing to add. 4 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 What is our ♠ suit exactly. Is the '1' an Ace or a typo? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 RKCB Clubs have been agreed. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 How about 4N as a ♦ cue here? And, what is standard when making a cue bid in partners 1st bid suit, 1st round control? Ace only? I have no clue, what standard is, but in general your first cue should show a top honor, espesially if the cue occurs in p suit.If p has a long suit, the cue may even be based on the Queen in this suit. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 Dear Marlowe, RKCB Clubs have been agreed. are you seriously proposing that this is a useful meaning for 4NT after opener has skipped his first opportunity to bid RKCB, or are you simply unaware of the meaning of "Kickback"? In the former case, I disagree. In the latter case, I respectfully request that you try to understand the question before answering it. Similarilt, I don't understand why Lurpoa explains 4♥ as denying ♦A, and why Tomi thinks his 5♣ would show some number of aces. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 How about 4N as a ♦ cue here? And, what is standard when making a cue bid in partners 1st bid suit, 1st round control? Ace only?I think this would be the normal definition without further discussion beyond just Kickback, exchanging the meanings of 4NT and the relevant Kickback bid. In partner's suit standard would be a high honour. For most this means an A or K but there are some pairs, mostly Italian from what I can see, who will cue bid partner's suit with a Q in some circumstances. The main point is that making your initial cue-bid in partner's suit with shortage tends to send the wrong message. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 RKCB Clubs have been agreed. With kind regardsMarloweIn a normal situation I would agree, but OP clearly stated they play Kickback RKC. It means that 4♦ is RKC when ♣ have been agreed. So 4NT RKCB is impossible. The standard meaning (if there is one) when playing Kickback RKC is that 4NT replaces the original meaning of 4♦. So 4NT would show a ♦ control. It could be used as some sort of last train for sure. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted November 18, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 What is our ♠ suit exactly. Is the '1' an Ace or a typo?sorry, the hand is K9,J862,KQ6,AT42 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 If 4D over 4C is the only RKC bid available, then 4NT is a "last train" type of bid where partner is still interested and wants to know how good our hand is. As it is, I have the golden KQ of diamonds for partner so I bid 6C. This. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrGoodwin Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 Just asking: Does "4D is kickback when clubs are agreed" necessarily imply that 4D is the exclusive way to ask for keycards when clubs are agreed? Or does it mean instead that 4D, when it is available, asks for keycards when clubs are agreed? In the given auction, 4D is no longer available to either player once opener has bypassed it to control-bid 4H. Why should that prevent opener from asking for keycards the old-fashioned way, via 4NT, after 4H elicits a 4S control-bid from responder? You can imagine - can't you? - a layout in which 4D kickback over 4C won't do the job because opener needs to know about a spade control; and once he finds out about the spade control, then he may want to inquire about keycards. I could be all wet about this, especially as I play neither kickback nor RKCB . . . Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 It is normal to play 4NT as a second chance for RKCB when playing Minorwood but not with Kickback. Normal does not imply universal. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 Playing 2/1 & kickback You hold K9, J862, KQ6, AT42 Partner opens 1st seat 1♦:1♥2♣:2♠ *4sgf3♣:4♣4♥:4♠ *cue *cue4N What is partner doing bidding 4N? Playing kickback 4nt here is a diamond cue bid. I would not be surprised if pard has a h void here. second option is 4nt is d cue bid and pard has something like AH, AD, and xx in spades...and was too afraid to 4d kickback.---- fwiw I dont like responders bidding too weak. If I am opener I expect a much biggerhand out of you. you bid 2s gf and then showed even more with 4c. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 Just asking: Does "4D is kickback when clubs are agreed" necessarily imply that 4D is the exclusive way to ask for keycards when clubs are agreed? Or does it mean instead that 4D, when it is available, asks for keycards when clubs are agreed? In the given auction, 4D is no longer available to either player once opener has bypassed it to control-bid 4H. Why should that prevent opener from asking for keycards the old-fashioned way, via 4NT, after 4H elicits a 4S control-bid from responder? You can imagine - can't you? - a layout in which 4D kickback over 4C won't do the job because opener needs to know about a spade control; and once he finds out about the spade control, then he may want to inquire about keycards. I could be all wet about this, especially as I play neither kickback nor RKCB . . . yes 4d is the only way to rkc on this auction..only way....except for say over 4c...5h or 5s would be exclusion here. very rare bid..one I have never made. 4nt is d cue here. again pard may very well have a h void here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ant590 Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 For me, opener had ♠xx and didn't want to bid keycard the first time. Once partner has shown a spade cuebid, opener now can bid keycard. But I'd go with the wisdom of the BBO forum crowd if you want something more mainstream I guess. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted November 18, 2010 Report Share Posted November 18, 2010 Since 4d is the only rkc here...with void opener is forced to not bid 4d so he skips rkc. That means with xx in spades and no h void...you may just chance it and bid 4d rkc so pard will not play you for a void. Again I would expect a much bigger hand from responder so I would pick 4d with xx in spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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