straube Posted November 10, 2010 Report Share Posted November 10, 2010 After 1D dbl P ? I've learned that with Kxxx xxxx xx xxx my response is 1S so that I may rebid 2H later if need be. With... Kxx xxx xxxx xxx my response is 1H. Now after... 1D dbl P 1H2D dbl P ? partner is showing extra values and no fit for hearts. Some believe that X suggests a balanced hand, but what is partner to do with 4-3-1-5 and 18 or so? Would a 2S bid here show 4-5 in the majors or 3-3 in the majors? I would like it to show 3-3 in the majors so that I don't have to choose between passing a likely make or rebidding a 3-cd suit that partner has likely only 3 cd support for. What's the standard treatment (if there is one)? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mgoetze Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Well, partner doesn't sound like he has 5 spades, and I don't think we're well-placed to play a 4-3 fit. I guess I will bid 2NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted November 11, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Well, partner doesn't sound like he has 5 spades, and I don't think we're well-placed to play a 4-3 fit. I guess I will bid 2NT. That just can't be right. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Well, partner doesn't sound like he has 5 spades, and I don't think we're well-placed to play a 4-3 fit. I guess I will bid 2NT. A contract that we are well placed to play. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted November 11, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 A contract that we are well placed to play. But won't the opponents likely get the first 6 diamond tricks and possibly other tricks? Granted that in suit play doubler's hand will be tapped, but there are dummy reversal chances and we might find a 5-3 club fit that survives the tap. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kayin801 Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 But won't the opponents likely get the first 6 diamond tricks and possibly other tricks? Granted that in suit play doubler's hand will be tapped, but there are dummy reversal chances and we might find a 5-3 club fit that survives the tap. There is an outside chance that was sarcasm. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mtvesuvius Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 In all seriousness, I hate this problem. I hate it so much that I'd drop a card on the floor and ask for a redeal. However, I think 2♠ should not show 3-3, and therefore you are endplayed into 2♥... Not the greatest, but still not the worst thing that could happen, right? Partner could raise, that would be worse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rogerclee Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Depending on the vulnerability you don't actually need very good IMP odds at all to just defend. -180 is not so bad when bidding will probably result in -200 or worse. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted November 11, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 In all seriousness, I hate this problem. I hate it so much that I'd drop a card on the floor and ask for a redeal. However, I think 2♠ should not show 3-3, and therefore you are endplayed into 2♥... Not the greatest, but still not the worst thing that could happen, right? Partner could raise, that would be worse. But why rebid a suit that is likely a 3-3 fit? Makes no sense to me. Partner says he has extras and probably has only three-cd support. Why not try for a strain that might be a winner? And simultaneously let in partner on your (probable) exact shape of 3-3-4-3 while also preserving your 2H rebid to guarantee a 4-cd holding. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Going back to Doubler's rebid here, 2NT would be 19-21 balanced, right? I wonder if it would not be better to make this hand type call double and then you can use a 2NT bid to represent the other hand you mentioned, 5 clubs and no heart fit. Would that not solve your problem? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lesh Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 1)About 1di - DBL - P I think with Kxxx xxxx xx xxx it is better to bid 1he than 1sp and then rebidding 2he, because you will show 5th spade and 4th heart. With 1he bidding you dont deny 4th spade whereas with 1sp bid you will have 4th heart only when you are 5th sp and 4he. 2) About 1di - DBL - 1he - P 2di - DBL - It is difficult to show 3-3 so I think 2sp would be the less harmful one although you have 3 cards, because the problem is when partner pass out your 2he bid and you in 3-2 fit. So considering the worst that can happen is 4sp 4-3 fit and 2he 3-2(3) fit. You decide which one is better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 The best way to deal with this problem is to agree upon an artificial negative reply to the cue--bid. That could be step 1, or the lowest unbid suit. Then all other bids show shape and a bit of high-card strength. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 I'd rebid 2NT to show a trash hand not even worth 1NT, maybe I am a bit too high now, but other bids will likelly get me even higher Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mfa1010 Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 I think any bid but 2♥ shows something. Perhaps 1♠ was better when we do have the ♠K. 2♥ is an option, as is 2NT, but I like pass. I'd rebid 2NT to show a trash hand not even worth 1NT, ... I would expect 2NT now to show some values and a 4card heart suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 If not playing any special methods, I'd respond 2♣ to the takeout double. That removes any risk that partner will think we have a 4-4 major-suit fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 I dislike most of the solutions brought forth. First of all, I really hate the idea of using the first step (or any step) as an artificial negative after a double of 1D. The 2NT rebid is obviously absurd. I also really dislike the initial 2C response, I am not going to rebid a 3-card suit at the two level (in the suit where partner is least likely to have a 4-card suit!), just out of fear of getting partner excited. To continue, I don't like to play that after the double of 2D, any bid besides 2H shows extras. In fact, it seems to me that this is really bad. The situation is very different from 1D - Dbl - p - 1H - p - 2D. In the original auction partner has really denied 3 hearts, which is not the case in the cuebid auction. Moreover, this second double is usually more about competing and finding the right strain than the cuebid auction, where partner is showing a big hand and wants to know whether we can say something positive. The 1S bid seems sensible though, I see no reason why we shouldn't bid it with 3-3 as well as well as with 4-4. Here our only honor is in spades which makes it even more attractive. Had I bid 1H then I would bid 2S now. Partner has already shown a good hand and the auction is reasonably likely to end here. There is no reason to drop a card on the floor yet, we might well be able to scramble 7 or 8 tricks. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mfa1010 Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Yep, you are absolutely right, han. But I still think that passing the second double is a decent shot, though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Passing the second double also occured to me, yes. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted November 11, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 Going back to Doubler's rebid here, 2NT would be 19-21 balanced, right? I wonder if it would not be better to make this hand type call double and then you can use a 2NT bid to represent the other hand you mentioned, 5 clubs and no heart fit. Would that not solve your problem? I think partner with 4-3-1-5 bigger should not commit to 2N. 2H may still be the garden spot. Better to dbl again and communicate a big hand with probably three hearts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted November 11, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 I dislike most of the solutions brought forth. First of all, I really hate the idea of using the first step (or any step) as an artificial negative after a double of 1D. The 2NT rebid is obviously absurd. I also really dislike the initial 2C response, I am not going to rebid a 3-card suit at the two level (in the suit where partner is least likely to have a 4-card suit!), just out of fear of getting partner excited. To continue, I don't like to play that after the double of 2D, any bid besides 2H shows extras. In fact, it seems to me that this is really bad. The situation is very different from 1D - Dbl - p - 1H - p - 2D. In the original auction partner has really denied 3 hearts, which is not the case in the cuebid auction. Moreover, this second double is usually more about competing and finding the right strain than the cuebid auction, where partner is showing a big hand and wants to know whether we can say something positive. The 1S bid seems sensible though, I see no reason why we shouldn't bid it with 3-3 as well as well as with 4-4. Here our only honor is in spades which makes it even more attractive. Had I bid 1H then I would bid 2S now. Partner has already shown a good hand and the auction is reasonably likely to end here. There is no reason to drop a card on the floor yet, we might well be able to scramble 7 or 8 tricks. I've always read that bidding spades and then hearts promises 4/4. I've always read that with 3343 the correct first response is 1H, perhaps in part to allow doubler to rebid 1S. Perhaps to guarantee that a 1S advance shows 4. I've never seen what to do after a 1H response when partner doubles back in (or cues) but a 2S bid seems right. With a 4S/5 h hand one can always comfortably rebid hearts without denying spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gnasher Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 First of all, I really hate the idea of using the first step (or any step) as an artificial negative after a double of 1D. I actually suggested an artifical negative reply "to the cue--bid". Readers who are rather more alert than I am will notice that there hasn't actually been a cue-bid, and will have inferred that I didn't, in fact, know what the auction was. I thought partner had doubled and then cue-bid, which, as you say later in your post, is rather different. I also really dislike the initial 2C response, I am not going to rebid a 3-card suit at the two level (in the suit where partner is least likely to have a 4-card suit!), just out of fear of getting partner excited.Who said anything about rebidding 3♣? If partner cue-bids or doubles 2♦, you can bid 2♥ or 2♠, and he will expect that you have exactly three. So you will have suggested one more card in a minor, rather than one or two more cards in a major. To continue, I don't like to play that after the double of 2D, any bid besides 2H shows extras. In fact, it seems to me that this is really bad. The situation is very different from 1D - Dbl - p - 1H - p - 2D. In the original auction partner has really denied 3 hearts, which is not the case in the cuebid auction. Moreover, this second double is usually more about competing and finding the right strain than the cuebid auction, where partner is showing a big hand and wants to know whether we can say something positive.Yes, I agree. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 I also really dislike the initial 2C response, I am not going to rebid a 3-card suit at the two level (in the suit where partner is least likely to have a 4-card suit!), just out of fear of getting partner excited. I am a 2♣ bidder. When you have a very weak hand and LHO passes over the takeout DBL, it is at least likely that partner will be strong and bid again. If partner is very strong his distribution is undefined. What matters is not whether your initial bid is at the two level, but at which level the bidding will come to a stop, maybe doubled. Foresight by the hand, which is broke, pays. Bidding 3 card major suits on weak hands is obviously dangerous. A good partner will not play you for being broke and having no suit, because the situation where you do not have a 4 card suit to bid is quite rare and if he does you will miss many good games when the situation is not quite that desperate. Bidding a minor is less likely to excite a takeout doubler. Bidding a major at the one level may be helpful if partner will rebid 1NT. But if partner will cue-bid or double again or if he has support for the bid major you are likely to get too high. In both cases you will end up higher than the one level for sure. I certainly prefer a 1♠ response to 1♥ because you can rebid 2♥ in response to the cue-bid, which keeps the bidding low. Bidding 1♥ followed by 2 ♠ is a good recipe for a disaster, and rebidding a major on three cards too. How the strong takeout doubler is ever supposed to find out anything about your major suit lengths escapes me. To say partner has to reckon with the worst does not help. Game might be excellent opposite 5-4, but the two level may be too high opposite 3-3. If you start with 2♣ in response to the takeout double and partner cue-bids you can now bid 2 ♥ and the takeout doubler will know that you are very unlikely to hold a 4 card major and since you did not rebid your ♣ you neither have a 5 card ♣ suit since you preferred to bid a 3 card major. Furthermore if you prefer to bid a 3 card minor in preference to a 3 card major, the takeout doubler will be on much firmer grounds when you do bid a major in response to his takeout double. There is a need in many competitive situations for takeout doubler to raise without much extra to confirm that he does have 4 card support for your bid major. Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
straube Posted November 11, 2010 Author Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 I think bidding 2C initially with 3343 is ridiculous. It prevents opener from rebidding 1S or 1N, contracts for 8 tricks instead of 7 and shows a preference for clubs when no preference exists. 2C should promise 4 clubs. A 2C advance deserves to catch doubler with 4-4-3-2. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rhm Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 I think bidding 2C initially with 3343 is ridiculous. It prevents opener from rebidding 1S or 1N, contracts for 8 tricks instead of 7 and shows a preference for clubs when no preference exists. 2C should promise 4 clubs. A 2C advance deserves to catch doubler with 4-4-3-2. Strange, why you insist that a minor suit response must show 4 cards while a major suit response can be bid on 3. Big deal if doubler wanted to rebid ♠. Over 2♣ he will now bid 2♠, showing around 19 points, which I will pass. Now assume you had bid 1♠ in response to the takeout double. I wish you good luck stopping him from considering slam. Now let doubler be 4=4=3=2. When doubler has a doubleton in an unbid suit he must be strong. I wish you also good luck when doubler jumps to at least 3♥ or 3♠ over your major suit response, while he will just bid 2♦ over 2♣ and pass the 2♥ rebid. Rainer Herrmann Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OleBerg Posted November 11, 2010 Report Share Posted November 11, 2010 1)About 1di - DBL - P I think with Kxxx xxxx xx xxx it is better to bid 1he than 1sp and then rebidding 2he, because you will show 5th spade and 4th heart. With 1he bidding you dont deny 4th spade whereas with 1sp bid you will have 4th heart only when you are 5th sp and 4he. Wrong forum. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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