business or no preference

[straube]

the auction is 1D (2C) P P dbl rdbl P P

 

Is partner sitting for 2C doubled or does he ask opener to make a preference?

 

I know that 1D dbl rdbl P shows no preference. Does the same logic apply?

[lesh]

Generally it is the same logic. You bidded a t/o dbl and the opps REDBL, your partner has to choose which suit. Unfortunately you cant play the contract with XX, you cant have everything

[655321]

Generally it is the same logic. You bidded a t/o dbl and the opps REDBL, your partner has to choose which suit. Unfortunately you cant play the contract with XX, you cant have everything

No, passing this one says you were passing 2♣X.

[Fluffy]

1♦ - X -XX -pass is an exception the general rule is that passes of redoubles are to play.

[andy_h]

I like business when pass is over the bidder, and no preference when under the bidder.

[straube]

I was thinking business, too. It would be nice to find a central reference for sequences like that. I know Lawrence comments on a lot of stuff like that but it's scattered amongst many of his books.

[Free]

Business, otherwise everyone with a poor overcall can just RDbl and get off the hook :rolleyes:

[ArtK78]

Business, otherwise everyone with a poor overcall can just RDbl and get off the hook :rolleyes:

Absolutely.

 

Only exception is 1 of a suit - x - xx - P. This is not a business pass.

[Cascade]

I play business when over the bidder and at the two-level or higher when under the bidder.

 

So this one is business.

[nigel_k]

I don't think there is a standard approach and you need an agreement, e.g. above one of a suit any pass of a redouble is for penalty.

[bucky]

Generally it is the same logic. You bidded a t/o dbl and the opps REDBL, your partner has to choose which suit. Unfortunately you cant play the contract with XX, you cant have everything

The logic should be different because these are very different auctions.

 

In (1♦) X (XX), opponents have announced majority of high cards, the chance for the advancer to have a hand that want to defend against 1♦-XX is so slim, unless the opponent psyched in XX. Now consider the auction of 1♦ (2♣) P (P); X (XX), it is quite normal for the responder to be trap-passing (actually opener's reopening double is sort of catering to that possibility), opponents haven't shown dominant combined values, and the overcaller is in perfect position to psych the XX, EXACTLY because many pairs never discussed the action over this XX.

[dboxley]

Sitting, how else can he defend 2C?