wyman Posted October 28, 2010 Report Share Posted October 28, 2010 Maybe this is omglolwtp but I didn't know what everything meant. If this is B/I I can repost. xx is obviously SOS. all red:(p)-p-(1c)-x(p)-p-(xx)-1d(p)-?? What does 1d show, and what are our follow-ups? What's forcing? What does a new suit show? Jump in a new suit?What are our diamond raises? What are our NT bids? How do these answers change if we aren't a PH? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
paulg Posted October 28, 2010 Report Share Posted October 28, 2010 I have never discussed this with any regular partner. I'm not saying it is not important ... well I am really, it's not important for most as there is so much else to discuss and we leave things like this to just be common sense. So I guess partner has diamonds and no interest in doubling at least one of the majors at the one-level, otherwise he'd pass the redouble. I'd bid now as if partner had opened 1♦ with the comfort of knowing that he has a good hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted October 28, 2010 Report Share Posted October 28, 2010 What does pass by partner then 2D later show? Different from 1D over XX, I guess.Lots of questions for this rare, thus an-agreed situation. I hope meta-agreements carry this auction. Here strong forces at least 2NT or raised. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bucky Posted October 28, 2010 Report Share Posted October 28, 2010 I don't think the penalty pass of 1C-X sets up any force. The advancer can have just 5-7 HCP and lots of clubs. The pass just says he thinks there is a good chance 1C would go down, nothing further. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted October 28, 2010 Report Share Posted October 28, 2010 Haven't discussed this but meta-agreements would say that 1♦ is weaker than pass followed by 2♦, so 1♦ doesn't show extra values and is not forcing. If responder now bids 1NT or 2♣ it should be non-forcing but 1M should be forcing by a non-passed hand, I think. Just because otherwise it is not clear what responder can do to force. But probably most hands with GF values can just punt 3NT here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted October 28, 2010 Report Share Posted October 28, 2010 Haven't discussed this but meta-agreements would say that 1♦ is weaker than pass followed by 2♦... Why? I admit the sequence is undiscussed here as well - but - surely you don't think your pass is forcing on partner in the unlikely event that responder should leave the xx in do you?! Nick Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wyman Posted October 29, 2010 Author Report Share Posted October 29, 2010 Follow-ups: Jxx / xx / A10x / AQ96x 1) Leaving the double in?2) Call over 1D? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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