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Is this a matter of agreement?


Hanoi5

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You hold:

 

8xxxxx

J

8xx

Q76

 

Partner deals and opens 2 which shows either a weak hand in any Major or a 22-23 (or 26-27) balanced hand. Next player passes, you dutifully bid 2, and LHO bids 3 over that (it should be natural as you are not alerted) which partner doubles and it's passed to you, what's that supposed to mean? What do you do?

 

2*-Pa-2*-3

X-Pa-???

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I don't trust 3 to be natural, so it would like to know more about the kind of event and if opps are a bunch of BBO pickup experts or an etablished f2f partnership.

 

Without further agreement I would expect partners dbl to be penalty either holding the or the strong hand.

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I dislike acting like this unless I have a good reason. having hearts is not a good reason in this auction. My partner will know my suit 95% of the time anyway. I think this is exactly the same situation as

 

2*-(3)-p-p

x

 

where 2 was weak with diamonds or strong any, of course opener's double does not show the weak hand with diamonds. he has a strong hand with no good bid! 22-23 balanced does not automatically want to bid 3N you know, especially like Axx in hearts and 4 spades.

 

Anyway yes sometimes it will happen that opps play a 5-0 fit undoubled on the 3 level when we'd have been in a 6-2 fit on the 2 level! Not the worst position in the universe wouldn't you say?

 

But not having a simple takeout double with 22-23 bal is pretty bad.

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Most partnerships will have discussed similar sequences like this... and the same general principles should apply.

 

I play it as follows:

 

2♣* (3♦) p p

?

 

Pass = Weak option(s)

Dble = Strong option(s)

 

So the question to ask is what would you have done w/out interference over the probable 2/3N. Some sort of route to 4S I guess.

 

Hence 4S is automatic here.

 

BR

Viren

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