pclayton Posted August 16, 2004 Report Share Posted August 16, 2004 I'm starting to develop some copious 2/1 notes with one of my pards. Playing Lawrence Style 2/1, where auctions like 1♠-2♥-2♠-3♥ and 1♠-2♦-2♥-3♦ are non-forcing, I'm thinking about toying with some of responder's jump rebids. Anyone out there heard of playing 1♠-1N-2♣-3♦ as a splinter instead of the jump showing the top of responder's range and diamonds? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trpltrbl Posted August 16, 2004 Report Share Posted August 16, 2004 I play it as a splinter, with a nice hand ( for my forcing 1 NT ). Mike ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted August 16, 2004 Report Share Posted August 16, 2004 what would 1♠-1nt-2♦-3♣ show (since 1S-2C-2D-3C is available)? if you play the 3D bid as club splinter, seems the 3C bid should be diamond splinter, given the non-forcing ability to show weakness with a suit Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted August 17, 2004 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2004 what would 1♠-1nt-2♦-3♣ show (since 1S-2C-2D-3C is available)? if you play the 3D bid as club splinter, seems the 3C bid should be diamond splinter, given the non-forcing ability to show weakness with a suit Thats a possible meaning, but I think you need a way to bid: x, xx, xxx, AQxxxxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted August 17, 2004 Report Share Posted August 17, 2004 ok, i suppose playing it as a splinter is fine... i'm not sure it's better than using it to show a top of range hand with a good suit... i guess maybe you should go by frequency percentages, or partnership philosophy... i have no idea which bid is theoretically better Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trpltrbl Posted August 17, 2004 Report Share Posted August 17, 2004 Thats a possible meaning, but I think you need a way to bid: x, xx, xxx, AQxxxxx Pass is the perfect bid for that, and after opps interfere with 2♥ you bid 3♣.Now you described your hand perfectly. Mike ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted August 17, 2004 Report Share Posted August 17, 2004 You mean pass 1S? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trpltrbl Posted August 17, 2004 Report Share Posted August 17, 2004 Pass the 2♦ rebid in the 1♠ - 1 NT - 2♦ auction given. Mike ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted August 17, 2004 Report Share Posted August 17, 2004 And what do you bid with 1S 1NT2D ...? xxxxxxAQxxxxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted August 19, 2004 Report Share Posted August 19, 2004 You have to either play 1♠-3♣ as 6-9, or 10-11 or rebid 2NT with long clubs and play a poor part score, it may work at MP :blink: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.