Little Kid Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 [hv=d=n&v=n&n=sak42hak76da83c96&s=sqt5hq84dkqjt52c3]133|200|Scoring: MP1♣-1♦2NT-?[/hv]You're playing short club and do not have any fancy methods to make a mild slam try in ♦s below 3NT. Should we have found this great slam instead of going down 3 in 3NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 Does that mean that 3♦ is non-forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 I think you can bid 4♦ over 2N provided 4N would be a signoff and 4♥ asks for aces over this. You have the values that if pard bids 4N you should make it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 I think even if 3♦ is forcing I'd bid 3NT EDIT: just to clarify, I'd bid 3NT as south, even if 3♦ is avaible. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 looking for slam here is a joke. It would take north a near perfect 5 covers cards hand. AK in both M+minor A to have a slam above 60%. (wich mean any hand with 2J, or with K or Q clubs doesnt lead to a good slam) So 3nt going down for me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 good lead opps Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ONEferBRID Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 I'm afraid I would only get to 3NT even without a short Cl open.For example:1D - 3C! ( Criss-cross = limit+ for Diam )3NT If I went past 3NT, with say a splinter, I'd be guilty of double-dummy bidding:1D - 4C!etc to 6D. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 Playing MP, I think 3NT is a sensible bid. If you have agreements, that allow you to stop in 4NT,than South is certainly strong enough to make a try, butonly than. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phil_20686 Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 I'm reasonably confident that I would have reached 6d at the table. I play a short club with 1c-3d showing an invitational hand with a "good" 6+ card suit. After this it seems fairly normal to play in diamonds rather than 3NT. Any hand where partner has 3 clubs will be cold for 11 tricks probably. As little as KQxxxx d and Axx clubs makes a very good slam. A single round of cuebidding should be pleny to reach the slam. A club control with the diamond hand will always have play for 12 tricks I think, although maybe not as much as one would like. Presumeably everyone has some way to show an invitational hand with a good 6 card suit? in std systems would that not be something like 1c-1d-2n-3d. If ever north has a 2N rebid that wants to play in diamonds this must be it, with a small doubleton and all in aces and kings. Re bidding 3N on this hand means you are rebidding 3N always opposite a 6 card suit in which case why is partner bothering to bid 3d? SUrely 3d always suggests you might want to play in 5d opposite a suitable hand? And my 2NT rebid cannot be more suitable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cascade Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 I think 3NT here is bizarre when partner could have two or three or four small clubs or some other weak holding. Its not simply a matter of looking for slam needing so much but the need to be in a good game. When you play a short club you need to be even more wary of a shortage in that suit since your methods have in most cases prevented the opponents from telling you about their ♣KQJxxx or similar which they just might consider as the opening lead. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 We'd find 6D. 1C F1 frees 2D for real 5+D. C-short next. Partner sees M-AKAK. Not C-void for grand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 [hv=d=n&v=n&n=sak42hak76da83c96&s=sqt5hq84dkqjt52c3]133|200|Scoring: MP1♣-1♦2NT-?[/hv]You're playing short club and do not have any fancy methods to make a mild slam try in ♦s below 3NT. Should we have found this great slam instead of going down 3 in 3NT? Yet another advertisement for better minor? ;) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 Works OK if you open a 4 card heart too, 1♥-2♦-2N(GF not necessarily bal)-3♦-4♦-5♣-6♦. The only worry is that you might be missing 7 as would be bid the same way with a stiff A♣ in the diamond hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
junyi_zhu Posted October 14, 2010 Report Share Posted October 14, 2010 [hv=d=n&v=n&n=sak42hak76da83c96&s=sqt5hq84dkqjt52c3]133|200|Scoring: MP1♣-1♦2NT-?[/hv]You're playing short club and do not have any fancy methods to make a mild slam try in ♦s below 3NT. Should we have found this great slam instead of going down 3 in 3NT? that's why I never understand why so many play 1C to show 2 or more. It just puts way too many hand types to 1C and make 1D opening less frequent. Therefore, it would be very difficult to set up trumps in clubs, especially after preemptive bids or 2NT jump rebids by the opener. After a 1D 2H(invitational) sequence and seeking for shortness, the reach of 6D is indeed very possible. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 Yet another advertisement for better minor? :angry: Looks more like an advertisement for strong club to me. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Little Kid Posted October 15, 2010 Author Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 Surely, if anything, this is an advertisement for more accurate methods over 2NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ceeb Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 I agree with benlessard that looking for slam after2NT is expecting miracles. Even considering 5♦ rather than 3NT seems to me very far-fetched. I question the 2NT response. I realize that it was stipulated as part of the problem but it seems a distortion. Add the system-imposed distortion of opening 1♣ and there seems no reason to expect the system can now right itself. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
NickRW Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 Well, it seems to me that 3♦ over 2N needs to be forcing to stand a chance of dealing with this, given the conditions imposed by the OP. I thought 1x-1M-2N-3M was forcing, choice of games for all but beginners - why should this be any different? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
keylime Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 In one partnership, I play this sequence as a mild slam try for a minor: 1m-1x2NT-3C3D-3NT Since diamonds were bid here, I'd assume diamonds is the suit in question. The problem is, you're control deficient for this bid. Just bid the normal 3NT here and strongly consider ditching short club. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RJWP Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 We'd find 6D. 1C F1 frees 2D for real 5+D. C-short next. Partner sees M-AKAK. Not C-void for grand. I agree completely: 1♣ f1R frees 2♦ I play it as mini multi either 1-suited ♦ or a weak jump shift in ♥/♠, short clubs will be bid on the next round. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RichMor Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 Well, it seems to me that 3♦ over 2N needs to be forcing to stand a chance of dealing with this, given the conditions imposed by the OP. I thought 1x-1M-2N-3M was forcing, choice of games for all but beginners - why should this be any different?Agree. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
2Macchiato Posted October 16, 2010 Report Share Posted October 16, 2010 Most normal people would be passing 2N through weakness. Therefore 3D is very much forcing - partner can easily co-operate with a cue bid. Alternatively 2N as a strong (18-19 balanced) fit raise (good honour support) and 3N as a value bid with no ambition in diamonds (e.g. xxx/xx/Jx types) balanced 18-19 is perfectly reasonable agreement. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
keylime Posted October 16, 2010 Report Share Posted October 16, 2010 If I was allowed to use my strong club system, Larry and I would need to book an overnight stay at the Holiday Inn to complete bidding the hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Viren169 Posted October 16, 2010 Report Share Posted October 16, 2010 We have all been in silly 3N contracts when game/slam elsewhere is on. However, how about something like this... 1C 1D2N 3D (F2G)3H 4C (Cue bids)4N 5D (1 key card)6D How bad can slam be?!?! BRViren Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted October 16, 2010 Report Share Posted October 16, 2010 What's my C-splinter bid over 2N? I try that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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