xx1943 Posted October 8, 2010 Report Share Posted October 8, 2010 [hv=d=s&v=n&s=skq2hak9753dkjt2c]133|100|Scoring: IMP<br/><br/>SOUTH WEST NORTH EAST 1♥ pass 1NT 2♠ ???You play 2/1, 1NT is forcing for 1 round.[/hv] If you scroll down, you'll find the complete hand and the story to it. This was the full hand[hv=d=s&v=n&n=sa10xh10daxxxxxcjxx&w=sjxhqxxxdxxcqxxxx&e=sxxxxxhjxdqcak10xx&s=skqxhakxxxxdkj10xc]399|300|Scoring: IMP[/hv]Our teammates bid:SOUTH WEST NORTH EAST 1♥ pass 1NT 2♠ 3♥ pass 3NT pass pass pass ♣-lead and down one. At our table the opponents didn't play 2/1 and they went easy to 6♦ and were on the way to 7♦ SOUTH WEST NORTH EAST 1♥ pass 2♦ pass It is not my style to bid 2♠ as overcall on that lousy suit. 3♦ pass 5♦ pass 6♣ pass 6♦ pass pass passEasily made 7. We lost 1490 and 16 IMPs ;) 3 questions: 1) Who is to blame for the 3NT desaster?2) How do you bid this slam (at least 6♦ using 2/1?3) Would you bid the East hand at the 2 level? Thanks in advance for your answersWith kind regardsAl Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted October 8, 2010 Report Share Posted October 8, 2010 I have a great hand, why wouldn't I bid my 2nd suit? Partner can false pref ♥, he can cuebid ♠ below 3NT,... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mcphee Posted October 8, 2010 Report Share Posted October 8, 2010 Would it not be more sensible to bid 2NT as a 6-4 which permits you to make a direct bid with 5 cards (something partners who love to know about). With strong more balanced hands you dble. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted October 8, 2010 Report Share Posted October 8, 2010 First, show 2nd suit when partner asked 2nd suit? So, 3D and wanting to get them in with C-void. Min would pass or double to accent DT. Second, 1H-1N(F1) almost always locates a S-fit for opponents. Here 5xS and the worst fit: 2xS, but escape in 5xC --some shape to take advantage of opponents picturing this hand for us. Wouldn't 4xS North bid 1S instead of 1N? Wouldn't Flannery opener show 4S5H? Neither done this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ninja89 Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 First, show 2nd suit when partner asked 2nd suit? So, 3D and wanting to get them in with C-void. Min would pass or double to accent DT. Second, 1H-1N(F1) almost always locates a S-fit for opponents. Here 5xS and the worst fit: 2xS, but escape in 5xC --some shape to take advantage of opponents picturing this hand for us. Wouldn't 4xS North bid 1S instead of 1N? Wouldn't Flannery opener show 4S5H? Neither done this hand. If the opponents play Flannery, is there not more of a danger here, since responder will routinely bypass a four card spade suit? Nothing precludes opener from being of a reverse strength with 4♠, either. At least you're likely to run into a 4-4 break in trumps, though. 2♣ is safer and it has a greater upshot: the lead. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 I have a great hand, why wouldn't I bid my 2nd suit? Partner can false pref ♥, he can cuebid ♠ below 3NT,... Agree with this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RJWP Posted October 15, 2010 Report Share Posted October 15, 2010 3♦ GF why not?? Allways show (at least) 9 cards instead of 6 (unless your 6-card suit looks like 7 and your 4 card suit looks like 3 ;) . btw if prt would rebid 3N i would even bid 4♥ on this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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