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kayin801

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Did you want an auction?

 

1D = 10-17, 4+ diamonds, unbal

1H = 10+ relay

1S = 10-13, 0-3 spades unless 4 hearts

1N = GF relay

2C = 4-5 clubs

2D = relay

2N = 4 diamonds, 5 clubs

3C = relay

4D = 3=1=4=5, 5 A/K controls

6S

 

or were you looking for blame to be apportioned? Assuming 3S and 4H show serious slam interest then North has enough to commit to the 5 level.

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What kind of hands bid 2, or more so is it ever bid with heart stopper and without 5 spades without slam interest. If not, I think 4 splinter would be pretty good here. Without it north just has to do bit more later, but I admit it's hard to go on.
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Does 1 - 1 - 2 tend to show an unbalanced hand?

 

The earlier sequence may not be optimal, but the worst bid has to be the final 4. Partner made slam try in spades and showed A, North is looking at AK and A in the minors with heart shortness. If I have to choose only ONE bid after which our partnership is barred from further bidding, I would say 6 but worry about missing grand.

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South's fault. North cooperated with nothing in trumps and south knows it, of course he has his first and longest suit controlled. What more is north supposed to do with xxx of trumps and a minimum?

North is looking at controls in both minors, and South has made a slam try. How can South not have good spade suit?

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South's fault. North cooperated with nothing in trumps and south knows it, of course he has his first and longest suit controlled. What more is north supposed to do with xxx of trumps and a minimum?

North is looking at controls in both minors, and South has made a slam try. How can South not have good spade suit?

Easily? Besides what is "good", AQxxx would be a terrible slam. It's not like he needs AKQJxx.

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North is looking at controls in both minors, and South has made a slam try. How can South not have good spade suit?

Easily? Besides what is "good", AQxxx would be a terrible slam. It's not like he needs AKQJxx.

Wow, what does South have? AQxxx in spades and AKQJ in hearts? Note that North already showed minimum hand (by bidding 2 only) and South still made slam try. I don't see how he can do that without excellent trumps. AQxxxx will be minimum, and if he only has that, we shouldn't have any other losers. I didn't say North must insist on slam, but only 4 is too timid.

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After 3 opener has a monster. Just bid 4NT (not 4) and follow-up with some grand slam try if all keys are there. Responder will reject the GST but at least the small slam will be reached.

 

Really, that 4 is a "pass the bucket" bid, typical of people who are unaware of their resposibilities or are scared of making decisions. And 4 even more so....

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Maybe it's a style question, but here goes:

 

North's 2 is almost always a doubleton for me. So 3 can't be a bad 5card suit. I would have raised 1 to 2 in our usual precision system, even though 2 shows 5 for us.

 

In this sequence, north's 4 would be unthinkable for us. AK, A, singleton and three trumps. We would have bid 3 forcing over 2 as south though to show a very strong suit that doesn't really need support.

 

So in context I disagree with 2, 2 and 4 and would blame north for the bad result.

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Of course it all depends on style but for most people 2 shows 3. I know this is not true on the forums, nor for me, although in many cases that is because we would be raising directly on north's hand. So I'm trying to answer based on the style I believe most people use.

 

The one thing I think is ridiculous is to say south bids 4 then passes because he thinks north lacks diamond control. It looks like that's what south did which is why I blame him. I consider cuebidding cooperative. North bids 4 not only because he has a club control but because his hand is useful for slam. But I would never go above game holding a complete minimum and bad trumps. To me going higher because your hand is useful for slam is simply repeating the message of 4, and going higher because you have diamonds controlled is misplaced priorities.

 

Even if you think south showed 6 spades there is no reason they have to be particularly good. But if north has cooperated for me and I have south's hand I'm simply not stopping.

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The answer probably depends on what 2 means; for me , it shows a mimnimum hand with 3S. Therefore , North has boxed his hand and has no business declining to cue bid diamonds / show diamond control. the key question is then what to do over 4. BW may be the practical bid although xxx in trumps is scary , 5 might in theory be better but could confuse the issue. That's said I would have bid 3NT over 3S to show bad trumps but do not know whether this is mainstream practice globally.
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For extra info for those asking:

 

We do not raise on 3 cards here when we have a 2 rebid, which promises at least 4 cards in each minor (and almost always 5-4 either way). The only time we would raise on 3 is if opener held something like a min 3451 or some such where 2, 2 and 1NT all seem wrong.

 

As a result, the 2 bid by opener was mandatory to show 3 card support and 3 would only promise a 5 card suit, but would definitely show slam interest since there was no jump to 4.

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That's said I would have bid 3NT over 3S to show bad trumps but do not know whether this is mainstream practice globally.

'Mainstream' practise is probably to play 3NT as Serious. Then 4C is simply a curtesy cue and 4H shows serious slam interest. It seems likely that the OP plays 3NT as natural or it would have been included in the discussion - it is a highly relevant agreement here.

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I saw north open 1D and rebid 2C and couldn't take it any more. I'm giving north full blame for this.

 

Maybe south bid horribly later, I'm afraid I'll never find out.

its strong club han he cannot open anything else.

 

BTW that's why 2 shows 3 cards, opener rebids his 5 card suit with 22(54)

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Hi,

 

You have just 25HCP, no wastage at all, everything is needed, even the

club and heart shortage, so no blame at all, at least in a natural opening

system.

 

The only question is, if the slam interest was shown in the knowledge of a

min opener or not, if opener already showed a min opener, than it could

be argued, that he should move on seeing the diamond controls in his hand,

but only than.

 

But the way you play FSF, 2H was already GF, and 2S simply showed the fit.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: Overlooked the fact, that the opening is already limited to 15HCP,

nevertheless, opener happens to hold a (nice) min, the 5431 shape is

already known to responder.

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