junyi_zhu Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 hi! i certainly agree with fred about the arithmetical side of his demonstration however, the fact that lho has got an early ruff basically means that he led to get one..do we all do that with a potential trump trick? Against Henri, it could be different. :D Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bucky Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 I need a clarification here: Does LHO's play to the "decision trick" count as a shown card? e.g. LHO starts with a singleton, RHO wins (he has 5) and gives LHO a ruff. LHO exits in a side suit (RHO following). Trump Ace produces x from both opps. So far, it is 1 lead+2 trumps+1 side suit for LHO vs. 5+1+1 for RHO (4 vs. 7 --> finesse) When you play a trump and LHO plays x, does this x count? Is it now 5 vs. 7? Or do I use the count before play to this trick of 4 vs. 7? You can count the vacant space only when the suit distribution is clear. Suppose for one certain suit, opps have 8 cards, you play two rounds, both follow, you can't count this suit yet, because the distribution of this suit is still unclear. vacant space count can only be applied when the suit distribution is clear(or one card missing in your key suit). So for your example, the correct way to count vacant space is:LHO: 13-1(singleton) -3(three trumps)=9RHO: 13-5(5 in that side suit) -1 (one trump) = 7So it is 9:7 better to play finesse vs. dropping. I think the answer to the original question is: the x counts, so now it is 5 vs. 7. You always count the vacant space at the decision point, which is AFTER lho followed 2nd trump and BEFORE rho has played. When the side suit breaks 1-5, the vacant space is: LHO 8, RHO 6. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 ....You can count the vacant space only when the suit distribution is clear. .... What is the logic about this?(Before I read this I thought making a post to ask this & I was almost sure that you could do it always.)Logically you would think that if LHO leads a Heart then vacant spaces are 12:13..?I can only remember this if I understand it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 I think, kgr, the argument I wrote in this thread applies to this case as well. Caveat emptor. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bucky Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 Logically you would think that if LHO leads a Heart then vacant spaces are 12:13..?I can only remember this if I understand it. Actually yes, IF LHO picked a totally random card to lead, and that you need to make a decision right before RHO plays. After trick 1 is completed (assuming RHO follows heart), the vacant space is back to 12:12. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 I think, kgr, the argument I wrote in this thread applies to this case as well. Caveat emptor. I didn't understand it. I'll reread it later Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 Logically you would think that if LHO leads a Heart then vacant spaces are 12:13..?I can only remember this if I understand it. Actually yes, IF LHO picked a totally random card to lead, and that you need to make a decision right before RHO plays. After trick 1 is completed (assuming RHO follows heart), the vacant space is back to 12:12. Are you saying?: that if LHO leads a random card then probability that RHO holds another not shown specific card is 13:12. that if LHO is a bridger and leads a card then probability that RHO holds another not shown specific card is 13:13.(what if LHO is a beginner and does not have a clue what he is doing??) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
junyi_zhu Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 ....You can count the vacant space only when the suit distribution is clear. .... What is the logic about this?(Before I read this I thought making a post to ask this & I was almost sure that you could do it always.)Logically you would think that if LHO leads a Heart then vacant spaces are 12:13..?I can only remember this if I understand it. Because vacant space calculation is an approximation in some situations. For example, suppose opps have 8 spades, you draw two rounds, both follow. Therefore, spades can't be 8-0 or 7-1. However, 6-2, 5-3, 4-4 are all possible, so you just don't really know the exact distribution of that suit. In this sense, you can't include this suit into your calculation. All you know is that spades distribution is rather unknown and it's impossible to be 8-0 or 7-1, which is still a very small percentage comparing with all the possible spades distributions. Therefore, It's still fairly good approximation to assume that you don't know the spade distribution at all. In the other thread talking about the probabilities, one post was very well said: what's the average number of your heart suit if you open 1H showing 5 or more? I guess it can't be 6 and should be in the middle of 5-6, because frequency of 5, 6, 7 hearts holdings are very different. In this case, it's the same logic. When they hold 8 card, even if you know the distribution can't be 7-1 or 8-0, you still don't know the exact distribution and 7-1 8-0 are very rare events, so you can't really take those out of your approximation easily. Therefore, you'd just stick to what you have and consider the distribution of spades is unknown. The real percentage can be calculated by computer simulations in a quite accurate way, which should be slightly different from the vacant space calculation. However, at the table, vacant space counting is still your best friend. Still, in many situations, vacant space counting actually gives the accurate result. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bucky Posted September 29, 2010 Report Share Posted September 29, 2010 Are you saying?: that if LHO leads a random card then probability that RHO holds another not shown specific card is 13:12. that if LHO is a bridger and leads a card then probability that RHO holds another not shown specific card is 13:13.(what if LHO is a beginner and does not have a clue what he is doing??) After the lead, 13:13 no longer applies, there is just not this much room for hidden cards. When I said about random card, I am not using information on bidding and lead agreement. You can always rule out certain shape from the bidding, and the lead will also tell you something (if the lead is a low heart, even a beginner LHO probably wouldn't have AKQx in that suit). But strictly in terms of vacant space, after the opening lead and before RHO plays to the first trick, a particular unseen card can be anywhere among 12 remaining cards in LHO hand, or 13 remaining cards in RHO hand. Of course in reality it is not going to be 13:12, you always have clues in the bidding and lead. If you can rule out the possibility of RHO being void in hearts even before he plays to the first trick, you are back to 12:12. If you are certain that LHO has longer hearts than RHO, you will know that RHO is more likely to hold a specific card in a side suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MBV53 Posted September 30, 2010 Report Share Posted September 30, 2010 Good point/tip fred!MBV Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kgr Posted September 30, 2010 Report Share Posted September 30, 2010 ....You can count the vacant space only when the suit distribution is clear. .... What is the logic about this?(Before I read this I thought making a post to ask this & I was almost sure that you could do it always.)Logically you would think that if LHO leads a Heart then vacant spaces are 12:13..?I can only remember this if I understand it. Because vacant space calculation is an approximation in some situations. For example, suppose opps have 8 spades, you draw two rounds, both follow. Therefore, spades can't be 8-0 or 7-1. However, 6-2, 5-3, 4-4 are all possible, so you just don't really know the exact distribution of that suit. In this sense, you can't include this suit into your calculation. All you know is that spades distribution is rather unknown and it's impossible to be 8-0 or 7-1, which is still a very small percentage comparing with all the possible spades distributions. Therefore, It's still fairly good approximation to assume that you don't know the spade distribution at all. In the other thread talking about the probabilities, one post was very well said: what's the average number of your heart suit if you open 1H showing 5 or more? I guess it can't be 6 and should be in the middle of 5-6, because frequency of 5, 6, 7 hearts holdings are very different. In this case, it's the same logic. When they hold 8 card, even if you know the distribution can't be 7-1 or 8-0, you still don't know the exact distribution and 7-1 8-0 are very rare events, so you can't really take those out of your approximation easily. Therefore, you'd just stick to what you have and consider the distribution of spades is unknown. The real percentage can be calculated by computer simulations in a quite accurate way, which should be slightly different from the vacant space calculation. However, at the table, vacant space counting is still your best friend. Still, in many situations, vacant space counting actually gives the accurate result.Thanks for the effort. I want to believe the above, but I wonder how far off both methods are:[hv=n=skjt9hkqjxdxxcxxx&s=saxhxxxxxdakqcakq]133|200|[/hv]♠ is trumps.LHO leads a small ♥, RHO return a ♥ and LHO ruffs.LHO plays a random ♦ and RHO follows that suit.You cash ♠A and lead a second round. All follow with small ♠'s. Probability that LHO has ♠Q according to vacant space theory:13-1-3:13-6-1=9:6=0.6 Probability if WRONGLY taking the ♦ play into account:13-1-3-1:13-6-1-1=8:5=0.615385 If Playing ♣/♦ before the 2nd trump then:- for Vacant Spaces this will always be 0.6- for the WRONG calculation this will be:1 minor: 0.6153852 minors: 0.6363643 minors: 0.6666674 minors: 0.7142865 minors: 0.8==> Is anyone able to calculate the real probabilities?BTW: Does it make a difference for vacant space theory if opps always play their small cards from low to high? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted September 30, 2010 Report Share Posted September 30, 2010 Yes you can compute the exact probabilities. It is easy but takes a considerable amount of work. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
junyi_zhu Posted September 30, 2010 Report Share Posted September 30, 2010 ....You can count the vacant space only when the suit distribution is clear. .... What is the logic about this?(Before I read this I thought making a post to ask this & I was almost sure that you could do it always.)Logically you would think that if LHO leads a Heart then vacant spaces are 12:13..?I can only remember this if I understand it. Because vacant space calculation is an approximation in some situations. For example, suppose opps have 8 spades, you draw two rounds, both follow. Therefore, spades can't be 8-0 or 7-1. However, 6-2, 5-3, 4-4 are all possible, so you just don't really know the exact distribution of that suit. In this sense, you can't include this suit into your calculation. All you know is that spades distribution is rather unknown and it's impossible to be 8-0 or 7-1, which is still a very small percentage comparing with all the possible spades distributions. Therefore, It's still fairly good approximation to assume that you don't know the spade distribution at all. In the other thread talking about the probabilities, one post was very well said: what's the average number of your heart suit if you open 1H showing 5 or more? I guess it can't be 6 and should be in the middle of 5-6, because frequency of 5, 6, 7 hearts holdings are very different. In this case, it's the same logic. When they hold 8 card, even if you know the distribution can't be 7-1 or 8-0, you still don't know the exact distribution and 7-1 8-0 are very rare events, so you can't really take those out of your approximation easily. Therefore, you'd just stick to what you have and consider the distribution of spades is unknown. The real percentage can be calculated by computer simulations in a quite accurate way, which should be slightly different from the vacant space calculation. However, at the table, vacant space counting is still your best friend. Still, in many situations, vacant space counting actually gives the accurate result.Thanks for the effort. I want to believe the above, but I wonder how far off both methods are:[hv=n=skjt9hkqjxdxxcxxx&s=saxhxxxxxdakqcakq]133|200|[/hv]♠ is trumps.LHO leads a small ♥, RHO return a ♥ and LHO ruffs.LHO plays a random ♦ and RHO follows that suit.You cash ♠A and lead a second round. All follow with small ♠'s. Probability that LHO has ♠Q according to vacant space theory:13-1-3:13-6-1=9:6=0.6 Probability if WRONGLY taking the ♦ play into account:13-1-3-1:13-6-1-1=8:5=0.615385 If Playing ♣/♦ before the 2nd trump then:- for Vacant Spaces this will always be 0.6- for the WRONG calculation this will be:1 minor: 0.6153852 minors: 0.6363643 minors: 0.6666674 minors: 0.7142865 minors: 0.8==> Is anyone able to calculate the real probabilities?BTW: Does it make a difference for vacant space theory if opps always play their small cards from low to high? You made a mistake in your vacant space count, spade situation is still unknown. You can apply vacant space counting only when the situation of a suit is clear, or missing one key card in your key suit. Here, you just don't know the spade distribution yet. It could be 3-4, 4-3, 5-2, 6-1. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dkharty Posted September 30, 2010 Report Share Posted September 30, 2010 Dealer: ????? Vul: ???? Scoring: Unknown ♠ KJT9 ♥ KQJx ♦ xx ♣ xxx ♠ Ax ♥ xxxxx ♦ AKQ ♣ AKQ ♠ is trumps.I would love to see this auction... :( Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bucky Posted September 30, 2010 Report Share Posted September 30, 2010 ♠ is trumps.LHO leads a small ♥, RHO return a ♥ and LHO ruffs.LHO plays a random ♦ and RHO follows that suit.You cash ♠A and lead a second round. All follow with small ♠'s. Probability that LHO has ♠Q according to vacant space theory:13-1-3:13-6-1=9:6=0.6 Probability if WRONGLY taking the ♦ play into account:13-1-3-1:13-6-1-1=8:5=0.615385 How did you derive this? What is "13-1-3-1:13-6-1-1"? I can see "13-1-3-1" as "13 cards minus one H minus 3 S minus 1D", but what is "13-6-1-1"? And why taking ♦ play into account is WRONG? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ceeb Posted October 1, 2010 Report Share Posted October 1, 2010 ... I wonder how far off both methods are: Dealer: ????? Vul: ???? Scoring: Unknown ♠ KJT9 ♥ KQJx ♦ xx ♣ xxx ♠ Ax ♥ xxxxx ♦ AKQ ♣ AKQ ♠ is trumps.LHO leads a small ♥, RHO return a ♥ and LHO ruffs.LHO plays a random ♦ and RHO follows that suit.You cash ♠A and lead a second round. All follow with small ♠'s. Probability that LHO has ♠Q according to vacant space theory:13-1-3:13-6-1=9:6=0.6 Probability if WRONGLY taking the ♦ play into account:13-1-3-1:13-6-1-1=8:5=0.615385 ==> Is anyone able to calculate the real probabilities?Interesting case. Unlike Fred's original hand, we have not seen the entire spade-spot suit (the pseudo- or sub-suit consisting of small spades) so cannot accurately compute via vacant spaces. But we've seen a fair fraction of it, so how inaccurate is ignoring it altogether? Plugging into my probability calculator: First calculation: Using only that hearts are 1=3, the ♠Q is 6:5 to be on the left. That I think is the vacant spaces calculation. Second calculation: Using also the observation that LHO has at least 2 small spades, the ♠Q is 7:6 to be on the left. Third calculation: Taking into account as well that RHO has at least 1 small spade, the ♠Q is 33:28 to be on the left As decimal probabilities the above are 0.545, 0.538, 0.541. In principle the ♦ plays tell us something as well -- no ♦ void about. That increases the last probability to 0.5413, but of course making a computation like that while ignoring inferences from the bidding and play is entering the twilight zone. From the above computations it seems that the vacant space rule is quite accurate. Note that at the opposite extreme if you misapply vacant spaces by counting every card seen, then you would always, half-way through a trick, think it is k+1:k that the player yet to play has any given card.If Playing ♣/♦ before the 2nd trump then:- for Vacant Spaces this will always be 0.6- for the WRONG calculation this will be:1 minor: 0.6153852 minors: 0.6363643 minors: 0.6666674 minors: 0.7142865 minors: 0.8Sorry, don't understand that part.BTW: Does it make a difference for vacant space theory if opps always play their small cards from low to high?It can make big difference. Perhaps you could adjust the vacant space theory to account for it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ceeb Posted October 1, 2010 Report Share Posted October 1, 2010 ... I wonder how far off both methods are: Dealer: ????? Vul: ???? Scoring: Unknown ♠ KJT9 ♥ KQJx ♦ xx ♣ xxx ♠ Ax ♥ xxxxx ♦ AKQ ♣ AKQ ♠ is trumps.LHO leads a small ♥, RHO return a ♥ and LHO ruffs.LHO plays a random ♦ and RHO follows that suit.You cash ♠A and lead a second round. All follow with small ♠'s. Probability that LHO has ♠Q according to vacant space theory:13-1-3:13-6-1=9:6=0.6 Probability if WRONGLY taking the ♦ play into account:13-1-3-1:13-6-1-1=8:5=0.615385 ==> Is anyone able to calculate the real probabilities?Interesting case. Unlike Fred's original hand, we have not seen the entire spade-spot suit (the pseudo- or sub-suit consisting of small spades) so cannot accurately compute via vacant spaces. But we've seen a fair fraction of it, so how inaccurate is ignoring it altogether? Plugging into my probability calculator: First calculation: Using only that hearts are 1=3, the ♠Q is 6:5 to be on the left. That I think is the vacant spaces calculation. Second calculation: Using also the observation that LHO has at least 2 small spades, the ♠Q is 7:6 to be on the left. Third calculation: Taking into account as well that RHO has at least 1 small spade, the ♠Q is 33:28 to be on the left As decimal probabilities the above are 0.545, 0.538, 0.541. In principle the ♦ plays tell us something as well -- no ♦ void about. That increases the last probability to 0.5413, but of course making a computation like that while ignoring inferences from the bidding and play is entering the twilight zone. From the above computations it seems that the vacant space rule is quite accurate. Note that at the opposite extreme if you misapply vacant spaces by counting every card seen, then you would often, half-way through a trick, think it is k+1:k that the player yet to play has any given card.If Playing ♣/♦ before the 2nd trump then:- for Vacant Spaces this will always be 0.6- for the WRONG calculation this will be:1 minor: 0.6153852 minors: 0.6363643 minors: 0.6666674 minors: 0.7142865 minors: 0.8Sorry, don't understand that part.BTW: Does it make a difference for vacant space theory if opps always play their small cards from low to high?It can make big difference. Perhaps you could adjust the vacant space theory to account for it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bucky Posted October 1, 2010 Report Share Posted October 1, 2010 Interesting case. Unlike Fred's original hand, we have not seen the entire spade-spot suit (the pseudo- or sub-suit consisting of small spades) so cannot accurately compute via vacant spaces. But we've seen a fair fraction of it, so how inaccurate is ignoring it altogether? Plugging into my probability calculator: First calculation: Using only that hearts are 1=3, the ♠Q is 6:5 to be on the left. That I think is the vacant spaces calculation. Second calculation: Using also the observation that LHO has at least 2 small spades, the ♠Q is 7:6 to be on the left. Third calculation: Taking into account as well that RHO has at least 1 small spade, the ♠Q is 33:28 to be on the left As decimal probabilities the above are 0.545, 0.538, 0.541.Please note that LHO has at least THREE spades: ruffed once and followed trump suit twice. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ceeb Posted October 1, 2010 Report Share Posted October 1, 2010 Oh. Then 6/11, 43/83, 51/98, 5001/9608 or 0.545 0.518 0.5204 0.5205. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rfp Posted October 5, 2010 Report Share Posted October 5, 2010 I agree with Fred's mathematical point. Essentially, the spade spotsbecome a pseudo suit since their play involved no choice or decision,i.e., the missing queen would always be withheld. Therefore, at themoment of decision vacant spaces are equal if RHO has exactly twomore known cards in another suit. However, there is a restricted choice element (I didn't see mentioned)relating to _how_ the ruff was obtained. If leader was simply leading hispartner's suit, there is nothing here. But if he _chose_ to lead a singleton,a trump holding of xxx is more likely than Qxxx. That is, a singleton leadis automatic with xxx, but hardly so with Qxxx. Under these circumstances, it's certainly better to play for the drop inthe 50-50 situation. And it may be better to extend playing for the dropeven further. -- Richard PavlicekWeb site: www.rpbridge.net Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dake50 Posted October 5, 2010 Report Share Posted October 5, 2010 Are you expanding on Roudi's rules? How much side knowledge to sway alternate play? EG. weak2 by LHO swings a 1-4 safety play to "best" Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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