Flameous Posted September 23, 2010 Report Share Posted September 23, 2010 1♦ (2♠) to you ♠Jxx♥Jx♦JTxxx♣Kxx 1♦ was better minor. Is 3♦ obvious? And if you pass, what do you do after partner reopens with a double? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdonn Posted September 23, 2010 Report Share Posted September 23, 2010 Pass and if he doubles I bid 3♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted September 23, 2010 Report Share Posted September 23, 2010 Pass and if he doubles I bid 3♦. Yes, I do the same and think that a direct 3♦ shows more and may cause PD to go overboard. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
655321 Posted September 23, 2010 Report Share Posted September 23, 2010 It wouldn't hurt to know the vulnerability and form of scoring, but anyway I probably bid 3♦. I would like to have a bit more, but I do have 5 card support, and if the opponents raise spades I would feel much happier having shown my support. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted September 23, 2010 Report Share Posted September 23, 2010 Not enough for 3♦ initially, even with 5. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
andy_h Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 I'd pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 I pass too and bid 3♦ over a re-opening double. The only way (usually) that pard doesn't re-open with a double is if they also have 3 spades and some kind of minimum. That favours defence on top of pard getting excited with extras. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 Depends a lot on the vulnerability for me. Sometimes it's a 3♦ call, but this is not main stream apparently. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Codo Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 3 ♦ With majors, there are many players, who overbid one step if necessary to show their support. With minors it is much less acctractive (you have less to gain)- but I would still do it. Of course it helps if you have several ways to show your degree of support and how good your hand is. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 Without special agreements, you have to pass, ask yourself, what you would bid with 9-11HCP and a diamond fit.There are ways to differentiate between various strengths, which would allowyou to raise diamonds immediatly, but this is certainly not B/I stuff. A 3D diamond raise does not promise inv. strength, but it showes more thana bare min. for single raise, and your 6HCP consist of one 1HCP in their suit,you happen to have lots of jacks, which are overvalue anyway, and you have a bal. shape. If p reopens with a double, show the fit, it usually does not pay to go for blood,if we have a fit. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
spotlight7 Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 Hi: I use Good/Bad 2NT to show vaues when I bid directly and I show shape(without solid values) when I use 2NT*. 1D-(2S)-3D shows invitational values while 1D-(2S)-2NT-3C*-3D is this hand. :) Regards, Robert Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Flameous Posted September 24, 2010 Author Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 When this came up in the table, 3♦ was bid, 1♦ opener held a monster with 5♦ and after RKC they stopped in 5♦ as they should. I just wondered that after pass and double, you'd bid 3♦ with xxx xxx xxxx xxx so it seems 3♦ there seems sort of underbid. There is 2NT available but I'd assume scrambling rather than leb. Every problem can't be solved but I just wanted some take on this. With Q more I guess everybody would be bidding? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 When this came up in the table, 3♦ was bid, 1♦ opener held a monster with 5♦ and after RKC they stopped in 5♦ as they should. I just wondered that after pass and double, you'd bid 3♦ with xxx xxx xxxx xxx so it seems 3♦ there seems sort of underbid. There is 2NT available but I'd assume scrambling rather than leb. Every problem can't be solved but I just wanted some take on this. With Q more I guess everybody would be bidding? A common meaning of 2NT in this seq. is Lebensohl Style. With an add. Queen, bidding would be mainstream. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gwnn Posted September 24, 2010 Report Share Posted September 24, 2010 what the drunk kitten said (disagree with the fat cat and the stoned cat) but I wouldn't call it obvious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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