jillybean Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 We finished 2nd B/ 1st C overall tonight with 55% but as usual there were a number of boards we could have done better. Here's one, atb. [hv=d=n&v=n&n=saqj873hk9dk3ck86&s=skthj42d972caqjt5]133|200|Scoring: MP1♠ (P) 2♣ (2♥)2♠ (P) 4♠ (P)4N (P) 5♥ (P)5♠*2♣ gf [/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lmilne Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 80% south, 100% north :) That's not a GF, for one thing.And what does North think partner has, bidding 3S instead of 4? Presumably some hand with very little slam interest (or overbid before ;) ), opposite which 5 might be in trouble. No way is keycard the way to go. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 This is a very important hand to discuss. If 4S shows a hand unsuitable for slam, then it would be good to agree NEVER to do this with 3 keycards. This makes sense right, a hand with 2 aces and the trump king, even though it can be quite minimal, is not unsuitable for slam at all. With this agreement, north can safely pass, knowing the partnership missed at least 2 keycards. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted September 11, 2010 Report Share Posted September 11, 2010 This is a very important hand to discuss. If 4S shows a hand unsuitable for slam, then it would be good to agree NEVER to do this with 3 keycards. This makes sense right, a hand with 2 aces and the trump king, even though it can be quite minimal, is not unsuitable for slam at all. With this agreement, north can safely pass, knowing the partnership missed at least 2 keycards. A great suggestion here by Han. I blame both sides here but South gets more blame since it really seems a stretch to GF with this hand, especially if the pair opens lots of 10 and 11 pt hands. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted September 12, 2010 Author Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 So how should this auction go; 1♠:1N*2♠:4♠? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jjbrr Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 So how should this auction go; 1♠:1N*2♠:4♠? looks like a very reasonable auction Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bd71 Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 So how should this auction go; 1♠:1N*2♠:4♠? looks like a very reasonable auctionI'll take that auction in a team game. Perhaps a minor difference but at matchpoints, I agree with others who don't think S has game-forcing hand so would prefer to see... 1♠ 1N2♠ 3♠4♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JLOGIC Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 Am I missing something or has everyone suggested that rebidding 2S with the north hand after 1S-1N is ok? You have a prime 16 with a good 6 card suit...that is much too good for 2S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hanp Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 Am I missing something or has everyone suggested that rebidding 2S with the north hand after 1S-1N is ok? You have a prime 16 with a good 6 card suit...that is much too good for 2S. No, not everyone has suggested that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
manudude03 Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 If you have the agreement that 4S denies controls in the other 2 suits (a common agreement), then it's pointless to move with the N hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jillybean Posted September 12, 2010 Author Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 Am I missing something or has everyone suggested that rebidding 2S with the north hand after 1S-1N is ok? You have a prime 16 with a good 6 card suit...that is much too good for 2S. No, not everyone has suggested that. So what is it? 1♠:1N3♠? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pooltuna Posted September 12, 2010 Report Share Posted September 12, 2010 Am I missing something or has everyone suggested that rebidding 2S with the north hand after 1S-1N is ok? You have a prime 16 with a good 6 card suit...that is much too good for 2S. No, not everyone has suggested that. So what is it? 1♠:1N3♠? IMO, yes this. On BBO for most posters 2♠ is strong invitational when they hold this hand and weak non forcing when they hold KT9xxx Kx Kxx Kx. Partner is supposed to know the difference and act appropriately. When partner's crystal ball is acting up that is his problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bucky Posted September 15, 2010 Report Share Posted September 15, 2010 So how should this auction go; 1♠:1N*2♠:4♠? looks like a very reasonable auction North hand is too strong for just rebidding 2♠. With 6 good spades and 16 HCP, it is clear to rebid 3♠. Also, if west hand is going to bid 2♥ after our side started 1♠-2♣, then maybe after 1♠-1NT there will be an interference of 2♥ or 3♥. So a more realistic auction will be: 1♠ (P) 1NT (2♥)3♠ (P) 4♠ Or south can even bid 4♣ instead of 4♠, showing spade support with great clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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